1. In a plasmolysed cell :
DPD = 0
DPD = OP
DPD = TP
DPD = WP
Ans: B
DPD: This could stand for "Difference in Water Potential," which is a measure of the potential energy of water in different environments. In a plasmolysed cell, the water potential inside the cell is lower than the surrounding environment, leading to water loss and the collapse of the cell membrane.
OP: This could refer to "Osmotic Potential," which is the component of water potential associated with the presence of solutes. In a plasmolysed cell, osmotic potential is typically high outside the cell, causing water to move out of the cell.
TP: This might be "Turgor Pressure," which is the pressure exerted by the cell contents against the cell wall. In a plasmolysed cell, turgor pressure is reduced or lost due to water loss, leading to the cell membrane pulling away from the cell wall.
WP: This may refer to "Water Potential," which is the overall potential energy of water in a system. In a plasmolysed cell, the water potential is reduced compared to the surrounding environment, leading to the loss of water from the cell.
DPD = OP: This suggests that the Difference in Water Potential equals the Osmotic Potential. In the context of a plasmolysed cell, this is a more accurate statement.
2. —---- is without a gaseous phase.
Carbon cycle
Nitrogen cycle
Phosphorus cycle
Sulphur cycle
Ans: C
Among the options provided, the element without a gaseous phase in its cycle is the Phosphorus cycle. Phosphorus primarily exists in solid or dissolved forms in water, and it doesn't have a significant gaseous phase like nitrogen, carbon, or sulphur. In contrast, nitrogen cycles through the atmosphere in a gaseous form (N2), and both carbon and sulphur have gaseous phases in their respective cycles.
3. A homologous organ is :
Vertebrate heart
Flippers of dolphins
Eye of octopus
Wings of butterfly
Ans: A
Homologous Organs: Homologous organs are structures that have a similar underlying evolutionary origin, indicating common ancestry, even if their functions may be different in various organisms.
Example: The forelimbs of vertebrates, such as humans, cats, whales, and bats, are considered homologous. Despite having different functions (e.g., walking, swimming, flying), they share a common anatomical structure, suggesting a common evolutionary ancestor.
Analogous Organs: Analogous organs are structures that have similar functions in different organisms but do not share a common evolutionary origin. Instead, they have evolved independently in response to similar environmental pressures.
Example: The wings of birds and the wings of insects are analogous structures. They both serve the function of flight but have different anatomical structures and evolutionary origins. Birds' wings are modified forelimbs, while insect wings are extensions of their exoskeleton.
Homologous organs indicate shared ancestry and are evidence of common evolutionary paths, while analogous organs suggest similar functions evolved independently and do not necessarily imply a common evolutionary origin. The study of homologous and analogous structures provides valuable insights into the evolutionary relationships between different species.
4. Zymogen cells of gastric glands produce :
Pepsin
Pepsinogen
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Ans: B
Pepsinogen is the inactive precursor produced by zymogen cells in the gastric glands. It is activated to form pepsin, which aids in the initial digestion of proteins in the stomach.
Pepsin, Trypsin, and Chymotrypsin are active enzymes produced in different parts of the digestive system (stomach and pancreas) and play roles in breaking down proteins into smaller peptides during digestion.
5. Choose the organism which cannot reproduce through budding:
Scypha
Hydra
Yeast
Plasmodium
Ans: D
Scypha: Scypha is a type of sponge and reproduces through asexual and sexual means. It can reproduce by budding, where a small outgrowth or bud develops into a new individual.
Hydra: Hydra is a small, freshwater organism that reproduces both sexually and asexually. It is known for its ability to reproduce through budding, where a small bud grows out from the body and eventually detaches to form a new individual.
Yeast: Yeast is a type of fungus and reproduces asexually through a process called budding. In yeast, a small bud forms on the parent cell and eventually separates to become a new, genetically identical individual.
Plasmodium: Plasmodium is a parasitic protozoan responsible for causing malaria. It undergoes complex life cycles involving both sexual and asexual reproduction, but it does not reproduce through budding. Instead, it reproduces asexually in the human host's liver and red blood cells.
6. The pollination type where the pollens from one flower are deposited on the stigma of another flower on the same plant is called as :
Autogamy
Allogamy
Cleistogamy
Geitonogamy
Ans: D
Autogamy: Autogamy is a type of self-pollination where pollen from the same flower pollinates the stigma of the same flower. This occurs within the same individual plant.
Allogamy: Allogamy is a type of cross-pollination where pollen from one plant fertilizes the ovule of a flower on a different plant of the same species.
Cleistogamy: Cleistogamy refers to the condition where a flower remains closed and self-pollinates without opening. This is a type of autogamy because it involves self-fertilization within the same flower.
Geitonogamy: Geitonogamy is a type of cross-pollination where the pollen is transferred from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant. Although it involves flowers on the same plant, it is considered a form of cross-pollination because it involves different individuals (flowers) on the same plant mating with each other.
7. The respiratory organ of Peripatus is :
Skin
Book-lungs
Trachea
Gills
Ans: C
Skin: Some organisms, like amphibians, use their skin for respiration.
Book-lungs: Book-lungs are respiratory organs found in some arachnids, such as spiders and scorpions.
Trachea: Peripatus, also known as velvet worms, possesses trachea for respiration. Trachea are tubes or tubules that allow the exchange of gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide. They are part of the tracheal system, which is a network of tubes that transports air directly to cells in the body, enabling efficient gas exchange.
Gills: Gills are respiratory organs primarily found in aquatic organisms.
8. A total of —----- ATP molecules are generated during the oxidation of two pyruvic acids formed from a single hexose sugar during Kreb's cycle.
30
34
36
38
Ans: A
Aerobic respiration is the process by which cells convert glucose into energy in the presence of oxygen. It involves several stages:
Glycolysis (in the cytoplasm): Input: 1 molecule of glucose (a 6-carbon sugar)
Output: 2 molecules of pyruvate (3-carbon compounds), 2 ATP, and 2 NADH
Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm and doesn't require oxygen.
Pyruvate Decarboxylation (in the mitochondria): Input: 2 molecules of pyruvate (from glycolysis)
Output: 2 molecules of acetyl-CoA, 2 NADH
This step occurs in the mitochondria and links glycolysis to the citric acid cycle.
Citric Acid Cycle (Krebs Cycle, in the mitochondria): Input: 2 molecules of acetyl-CoA
Output: 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP (through substrate-level phosphorylation), and carbon dioxide.
The citric acid cycle completes the breakdown of glucose, producing high-energy electron carriers (NADH and FADH2).
Electron Transport Chain and Oxidative Phosphorylation (in the inner mitochondrial membrane): Input: NADH and FADH2 produced in the previous steps
Output: Water and about 36-38 ATP
9. Auditory area is present in the :
Parietal lobe
Frontal lobe
Occipital lobe
Temporal lobe
Ans: D
Temporal Lobe: The temporal lobe is one of the four main lobes of the brain, and it is located on the sides of the brain, near the temples. This lobe is associated with various functions, including auditory processing, memory, and language.
Auditory Cortex: Within the temporal lobe, there is a specific region known as the auditory cortex. The auditory cortex is responsible for processing auditory information, including the perception of sound, pitch, and other auditory stimuli.
Parietal Lobe: The parietal lobe is primarily associated with processes related to spatial awareness, sensory information integration, and the perception of the body's position in space. It is not specifically associated with auditory processing.
Frontal Lobe: The frontal lobe is involved in various higher cognitive functions, including motor control, decision-making, problem-solving, and aspects of speech production. It is not the primary location for auditory processing.
Occipital Lobe: The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for visual processing. It contains the primary visual cortex and is involved in the interpretation of visual stimuli. Auditory processing is not a main function of the occipital lobe.
10. Meibomian glands are modified :
Oil glands
Milk glands
Wax glands
Sweat glands
Ans: A
Meibomian Glands: Meibomian glands, also known as tarsal glands, are located in the eyelids. These glands secrete an oily substance called meibum. Meibum helps in preventing the evaporation of tears and maintaining the stability of the tear film on the surface of the eye.
Milk Glands: Milk glands are mammary glands found in mammals. They produce and secrete milk for the nourishment of offspring.
Wax Glands: Wax glands typically refer to ceruminous glands, which produce earwax (cerumen) in the ear canal.
Sweat Glands: Sweat glands are found throughout the skin and produce sweat for thermoregulation.
11. —--- is a nitrogen fixing bacteria, while —----- is a denitrifying bacteria.
Clostridium, Pseudomonas
Nostoc, Azotobacter
Beggiatoa, Rhizobium
Methanogens, Beggiatoa
Ans: A
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria have the ability to convert atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into a form that plants can use, such as ammonia (NH3) or nitrate (NO3-). Nostoc is a cyanobacterium, and Azotobacter is a free-living soil bacterium.
Clostridium is a non-symbiotic, anaerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria which fixes nitrogen in the absence of oxygen.
Pseudomonas and Beggiatoa: These are examples of denitrifying bacteria. Denitrifying bacteria play a role in the nitrogen cycle by converting nitrates (NO3-) and nitrites (NO2-) into nitrogen gas (N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O), which returns nitrogen to the atmosphere. Pseudomonas is a common genus of bacteria that includes species involved in denitrification. Beggiatoa is involved in the process of anaerobic respiration, including denitrification.
Rhizobium is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms symbiotic relationships with leguminous plants. It helps convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form usable by plants in a mutualistic association.
Methanogens produce methane as a metabolic byproduct.
12. Name the lateral appendage which helps Nereis in swimming :
Radula
Tube feet
Parapodia
False feet
Ans: C
Parapodia: Parapodia are lateral, flat, fleshy appendages found on each body segment of polychaete worms, including Nereis. They are prominently developed and bear various bristles called setae. Parapodia play a crucial role in locomotion, especially in swimming and burrowing. When used for swimming, parapodia create a wavelike motion that propels the worm through the water.
Radula: The radula is a structure found in mollusks, especially in classes like Gastropoda (snails) and Bivalvia (clams). It is a rasping tongue-like organ with tiny, chitinous teeth used for scraping or cutting food.
Tube Feet: Tube feet are part of the water vascular system in echinoderms, such as starfish and sea urchins. They are used for locomotion, attachment, and capturing prey through hydraulic pressure.
13. The true statement about apomixis is, it is a type of reproduction resulting in the development of :
An embryo from endosperm
An embryo from nucellus
A new organism from fusion products of gametes
A new organism without fusion of gametes
Ans: D
The true statement about apomixis is that it is a type of reproduction resulting in the development of a new organism without the fusion of gametes.
Apomixis: Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction in plants where seeds are produced without fertilization. In other words, it involves the development of seeds without the fusion of male and female gametes.
14. A protein with structural and enzymatic property is :
Myosin
Trypsin
Actin
Collagen
Ans: A
Among the options provided, myosin is a protein with both structural and enzymatic properties.
Myosin: Structural Property: Myosin is a structural protein found in muscle cells. It plays a key role in the structure of muscle fibers and is involved in muscle contraction.
Enzymatic Property: Myosin also has enzymatic properties. It acts as a motor protein and is involved in the hydrolysis of ATP to provide the energy needed for muscle contraction. The enzymatic activity of myosin is crucial for the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.
Trypsin: Enzymatic Property: Trypsin is an enzyme involved in the digestion of proteins. It is produced in the pancreas and functions in the small intestine to break down proteins into smaller peptides.
Actin: Structural Property: Actin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells. It is involved in providing structural support and is a key component of the cellular cytoskeleton.
Collagen: Structural Property: Collagen is a structural protein that forms the major component of connective tissues in animals. It provides strength and flexibility to tissues like skin, tendons, and bones.
15. Arrangement of sepals/ petals (five in number), of which two are exterior, two interior and the fifth one partly interior and partly exterior is termed as:
Valvate
Imbricate
Contorted
Quinquincial
Ans: D
The arrangement of sepals or petals in a flower is often described by specific terms based on their positioning and overlap. In this case, where there are five sepals or petals, with two exterior, two interior, and the fifth one partly interior and partly exterior, the term used to describe this arrangement is "Quinquincial."
Valvate: This term refers to an arrangement in which the sepals or petals are touching but not overlapping, and they meet at the edges without overlapping.
Imbricate: In an imbricate arrangement, the sepals or petals overlap each other, like shingles on a roof.
Contorted: Contorted arrangement is characterized by overlapping, but the edges of sepals or petals are twisted or contorted.
16. From the following select the type where the sixteen nucleate embryo sac is not seen ?
Endymion type
Tetrasporic type
Penaea type
Peperomia type
Ans: A
Embryo sac development in plants refers to the formation and maturation of the female gametophyte within the ovule. The female gametophyte, or embryo sac, is crucial for the process of sexual reproduction in plants. There are several types of embryo sac development, and they are classified based on the number of megaspores, the number of functional megaspores, and the number and arrangement of nuclei within the mature embryo sac. Here are some common types:
Monosporic embryo sac: Monosporic embryo sac develops from a single megaspore and as such all the nuclei present in this type of embryo sac are genetically similar.
Types of Monosporic Embryo Sac
Polygonum type - 8 nucleated, Most common type (81% families)
First time described in Polygonum divaricatum by Strasburger (1879) Develops from the chalazal megaspore. The nucelus is divides thrice to form eight nuclei embryo sac.
Oenothera type - 4 nucleated embryo sac (Egg apparatus- 3 cells and Polar nucleus- single cell), Develops from micropylar megaspore, Does not have antipodals. Example – Onagraceae family
BISPORIC EMBRYO SAC
Develops from one of the two dyads formed as a result of the first meiotic division (Meiosis I) of Megaspore Mother Cell. Both the nuclei of the functional dyad take part in the formation of embryo sac. Each nucleus undergoes two mitotic divisions and the mature embryo sac is 8 nucleated. The eight nuclei are organised into antipodals, egg apparatus and polar nuclei as in Polygonum type of embryo sac. The 4 nuclei derived from one megaspore nucleus are genetically different from the other four derived from the second megaspore nucleus.
On the basis of the position of functional dyad bisporic embryo sacs are of two types;
ALLIUM TYPE: Develops from the chalazal dyad
ENDYMION TYPE: Develops from the micropylar dyad.
TETRASPORIC EMBRYO SAC
Meiotic division of the megaspore mother cell is not accompanied by cytokinesis and hence all the four haploid nuclei lie in a single cell called Coeno-megaspore.
All four nuclei of coeno-megaspore participate in the formation of embryo sac. Genetically more heterogeneous than bisporic type of embryo sac. The tetrasporic embryo sacs are further divided on the basis of following criteria-
• The position of haploid nuclei in the coeno-megaspore
• The number of times these nuclei divide
• Organization of nuclei in the mature embryo sac
No nuclear fusion occurs - Adoxa Type, PlumbagoType, Penaea Type, Peperomia Type, Drusa Type.
After the second meiotic division three megaspore nuclei fuse to form triploid nucleus at the chalazal end of the coenomegaspore, The fourth nucleus at micropylar end remains haploid - FritillariaType and PlumbagellaType.
ADOXA TYPE - It has 8 nuclei which are formed by the mitotic division of the four haploid nuclei of the coeno-megaspore. The arrangement of the 8 nuclei in the embryo sac is the same as in Polygonum type. Example – Adoxa, Sambucus, Ulmus, Tulipa, Erythronium etc.
PLUMBAGO TYPE - This type of embryo sac is characterized by the absence of synergids and antipodals. Out of four haploid coeno-megaspore one migrates to the micropylar end, one at chalazal end and two at the lateral sides. Each nuclei divides again and formed four groups of two nuclei. One of the nucleus from each group moves to the center of the cell and form four polar nuclei. The remaining nucleus at the micropylar is cut off by a membrane and form the egg. There are no synergids. The other three nuclei usually disappear but occasionally they too may be cut off by membranes and appear as accessory egg cells. Example – Plumbaginaceae family
PENAEA TYPE - The four haploid nuclei of the coeno-megaspore undergo two successive mitotic divisions forming 16 nuclei.
These nuclei arrange themselves in four groups of four each, one at the micropylar end, one at chalazal end and one each on the two lateral sides. Now one nucleus from each groups migrates to the centre, and these four nuclei in the centre form polar nuclei. The three nuclei at the micropylar end are cut off by membranes and form the egg apparatus. The remaining three groups of nuclei (one chalazal and two lateral) degenerate at maturity. Highly polyploid (5x) primary endosperm nucleus is formed after double fertilization. Example – Family Penaeaceae, Malpighiaceae and Euphorbiaceae.
PEPEROMIA TYPE - The egg apparatus of Peperomia type is characterized by a single synergid. The four haploid nuclei of coeno-megaspore undergo two successive mitotic divisions forming 16 nuclei. Two nuclei at the micropylar end form egg and a synergid, eight fuse in the centre of the cell to form a polar nucleus and the remaining six at the chalazal end formed antipodals. Example- Peperomia and Gunnera
DRUSA TYPE - 16 nucleate embryo sac. This type of embryo sac is characterised by large number of antipodals. In the mature embryo sac three nuclei form egg apparatus. Two act as polar nuclei and the remaining 11 nuclei are cut off by membrane and form antipodal cells. The number and organization of nuclei may vary due to irregularity in the divisions. Example–Drusa,Rubia,Chrysanthemum,Ulmusetc.
FRITILLARIA TYPE - The four haploid nuclei of the coeno-megaspore arrange themselves in two groups – three at the chalazal end in the form of a triploid nucleus and one haploid at the micropylar end. The triploid chalazal as well as the haploid micropylar nucleus undergo two mitotic divisions and as a result four trploid nuclei are formed at the chalazal end and four haploid at the micropylar end. In mature embryo sac three haploid nuclei organize into egg apparatus, three triploid into antipodal and remaining one haploid and one triploid nuclei move to the centre where they fuse to form a tetraploid polar nucleus. Example – Fritillaria, Lilium, Piper and Gaillardia
PLUMBAGELLA TYPE - The initial development is similar to Fritillaria type and a triploid nucleus is formed at the chalazal end and a haploid at the micropylar end. Each of these nuclei undergoes a single mitotic division and form two groups of two nuclei each. One triploid nuclei from chalazal end and one haploid nucleus from the micropylar end fuse at the centre and form tetraploid polar nucleus. One haploid nucleus at the micropylar end forms the egg and one triploid nucleus at the chalazal end the single antipodal. There is no synergids.
17.------ is a staining method for staining of DNA.
Crystal violet
Feulgen staining
Giemsa staining
Methylene blue
Ans: B
The staining method specifically used for staining DNA is Feulgen staining.
Crystal Violet: Crystal violet is a general stain used in microbiology for staining bacterial cells. It is not specific to DNA.
Feulgen Staining: Feulgen staining is a method used to specifically stain DNA. This staining technique involves hydrolyzing DNA and reacting the resulting aldehyde groups with a Schiff reagent. The Schiff reagent produces a purple-red color when it reacts with deoxyribose in DNA. Feulgen staining is often used in histology and cytology to identify and visualize DNA in cells.
Giemsa Staining: Giemsa staining is a versatile stain that can be used to stain both DNA and RNA. It is commonly used in cytogenetics to stain chromosomes for microscopic examination.
Methylene Blue: Methylene blue is a general biological stain that can be used to stain a variety of cell structures, including nuclei. However, it is not specific to DNA and can also stain other cellular components.
Among the options provided, Feulgen staining is the staining method specifically designed for the staining of DNA, making it a valuable tool in biological research and diagnostics for visualizing and studying DNA content in cells.
18. Ranikhet is a disease affecting:
Poultry
Honeybee
Sheep
Silk worm
Ans: A
Ranikhet, also known as Newcastle disease, is a viral disease that primarily affects poultry, particularly chickens. It is caused by the avian paramyxovirus type 1 (APMV-1), which is a member of the Paramyxoviridae family. The disease can have severe economic consequences for the poultry industry due to high mortality rates and reduced egg production.
19. Choose the incorrect statement :
Spleen is the graveyard of RBC
Mature RBC is nucleated
RBCs are biconcave in shape
The average lifespan of RBCs are 120 days
Ans: B
Spleen is the graveyard of RBC: This statement is correct. The spleen plays a crucial role in the removal and recycling of old or damaged red blood cells (RBCs).
Mature RBC is nucleated: This statement is incorrect. Mature red blood cells do not have a nucleus. In mammals, the nucleus is expelled during the final stages of RBC development to provide more space for hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein.
RBCs are biconcave in shape: This statement is correct. Red blood cells have a distinctive biconcave shape, which increases their surface area, facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
The average lifespan of RBCs is 120 days: This statement is correct. The typical lifespan of a red blood cell is around 120 days, after which it is removed from circulation and broken down by macrophages, mainly in the spleen.
20. The muscle that bends one part over another is :
Flexor
Adductor
Extensor
Abductor
Ans: A
The muscle that bends one part of the body over another is called a Flexor.
Flexor: A flexor is a muscle that causes a joint to bend, decreasing the angle between two body parts. For example, the biceps brachii in the arm is a flexor muscle. When the biceps contract, they bend the forearm at the elbow joint.
Adductor: An adductor is a muscle that brings body parts closer together. For instance, the adductor muscles in the inner thigh bring the legs together.
Extensor: An extensor is a muscle that increases the angle between body parts, generally straightening or extending them. The triceps brachii in the arm is an extensor muscle responsible for straightening the forearm at the elbow joint.
Abductor: An abductor is a muscle that moves a body part away from the midline of the body. The lateral deltoid, for example, is an abductor muscle in the shoulder that raises the arm away from the body.
21. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
Ans: B
Berry: A berry is a fleshy fruit produced from a single ovary. It typically contains seeds embedded in the flesh. Examples of berries include tomatoes, grapes, and bananas.
Cypsella: A cypsella is a type of dry, one-seeded fruit that is characteristic of plants in the Asteraceae family, which includes sunflowers and daisies. It often has a fluffy pappus attached, aiding in wind dispersal.
Regma: Regma refers to a type of fruit that breaks open at maturity, releasing its seeds. This is often seen in capsules and fruits that split open to disperse seeds.
Syconium: Syconium is a type of multiple fruit that develops from the inflorescence of certain flowering plants, especially figs (Ficus). It's a unique structure where the flowers are contained within a fleshy receptacle.
22. Hisardale is a cross breed of —---
Cattle
Sheep
Rabbit
Donkey
Ans: B
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep which was developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams. It is developed by cross breeding.
23. The Evil Quartet describes :
Endangered species
Pollution
Loss of biodiversity
Species-area relationship
Ans: C
Evil quartet is a term related to four major causes of biodiversity losses. A) habitat loss and fragmentation, b) Alien species invasion, c) Co–extinction, d) over – exploitation.
24. The condition where the stamens are adhering to the carpels is called :
Syngenesious
Syncarpous
Gynandrous
Polyandrous
Ans: C
The condition where the stamens are adhering to the carpels is referred to as "Gynandrous." In a gynandrous flower, there is a fusion of stamens with the carpels.
Syngenesious: This term is related to the condition where the anthers of the stamens are fused together, forming a tube around the style. This is a type of stamen fusion.
Syncarpous: Syncarpous refers to the condition where the carpels (female reproductive structures) are fused. In a syncarpous ovary, the carpels are joined together, and they may form a single compound ovary.
Polyandrous: Polyandrous describes a condition where a flower has multiple stamens. In polyandrous flowers, there are numerous separate or free stamens, and they are not fused together.
25. —--- gives rise to the acrosome of the sperm.
Golgi apparatus
Lysosome
Centriole
Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans: A
The structure that gives rise to the acrosome of the sperm is the Golgi apparatus.
During spermatogenesis (the process of sperm cell development), the Golgi apparatus plays a crucial role in the maturation of the sperm cell. It forms the acrosome, which is a cap-like structure located at the anterior part of the sperm cell. The acrosome contains enzymes that are essential for the sperm to penetrate the outer layers of the egg during fertilization.
26. The enzyme that degrades ssDNA or RNA including single stranded region in predominantly double stranded molecules is:
Restriction endonuclease
Reverse transcriptase
RNAase H
S1 nuclease
Ans: D
The enzyme that degrades single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) or RNA, including single-stranded regions in predominantly double-stranded molecules, is S1 nuclease.
S1 nuclease is an endonuclease enzyme that specifically digests single-stranded regions of DNA or RNA. It is often used in molecular biology techniques to remove single-stranded overhangs from DNA or to digest RNA in DNA-RNA hybrids. The enzyme helps in the analysis and manipulation of nucleic acids in various laboratory procedures.
Restriction endonuclease: Restriction endonucleases (or restriction enzymes) are enzymes that cleave DNA at specific recognition sites. They are not specifically designed to degrade single-stranded DNA or RNA. Instead, they recognize specific sequences of double-stranded DNA and cleave at or near those sites.
Reverse transcriptase: Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that synthesizes a complementary DNA (cDNA) strand from an RNA template. It is commonly used in the reverse transcription process, where RNA is converted into DNA. While it is involved in nucleic acid metabolism, it is not known for degrading single-stranded DNA or RNA.
RNAase H: RNAase H is an enzyme that specifically degrades the RNA strand of RNA-DNA hybrids. It cleaves the RNA in the RNA-DNA duplex, leaving the DNA strand intact. It plays a role in processes such as DNA replication and the removal of RNA primers during DNA synthesis.
27. Which one of the following helps in the degradation of angiotensinogen ?
Renin
Thymosin
Relaxin
Somatostatin
Ans: A
The enzyme that helps in the degradation of angiotensinogen is Renin.
Renin is produced and released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney. It plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Renin acts on angiotensinogen, which is released by the liver, and cleaves it to form angiotensin I. Further conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) occurs, and angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that also stimulates the release of aldosterone, leading to increased blood pressure and fluid retention.
28. Conditional reabsorption of water and Na+ takes place in :
Henle's loop
Distal convoluted tubule
Proximal convoluted tubule
Collecting duct
Ans: B
The conditional reabsorption of water and sodium ions (Na+) primarily takes place in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron in the kidney.
In the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), there is significant and obligatory reabsorption of water and various solutes.
The loop of Henle is involved in creating a concentration gradient in the medulla of the kidney.
29. LSD is prepared from a/an :
Lichen
Algae
Bacteria
Fungus
Ans: D
LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is not directly prepared from a lichen, algae, bacteria, or fungus. It is a semi-synthetic compound derived from lysergic acid, which is initially obtained from the ergot fungus, specifically the fungus Claviceps purpurea.
The process involves extracting lysergic acid from the ergot fungus and then synthesizing LSD through chemical processes. Ergot alkaloids, including lysergic acid, have a history of being associated with various medicinal and psychoactive properties. The synthesis of LSD was first developed by the Swiss chemist Albert Hofmann in 1938. The use of LSD is known for its hallucinogenic effects on perception, mood, and various cognitive processes.
30. Spermatogenesis is regulated by :
FSH
Androgens
LH
FSH and androgens
Ans: D
Spermatogenesis, the process of sperm cell development, is primarily regulated by both FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) and androgens.
FSH, which is produced by the pituitary gland, stimulates the Sertoli cells in the testes, promoting the maturation and development of sperm cells.
Androgens, particularly testosterone, play a crucial role in spermatogenesis. Testosterone is produced by the Leydig cells in the testes and is essential for the initiation and maintenance of spermatogenesis.
FSH and androgens work together to regulate the various stages of sperm production in the testes. Additionally, LH (Luteinizing Hormone) also plays a role in stimulating the Leydig cells to produce testosterone, indirectly influencing spermatogenesis.
31. The process that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA is:
Oxidative phosphorylation
Oxidative decarboxylation
Oxidative carboxylation
Oxidative dehydration
Ans: B
The process that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA is called oxidative decarboxylation.
During oxidative decarboxylation, pyruvate, which is the end product of glycolysis, undergoes a series of reactions to produce acetyl CoA. This process occurs in the mitochondria and is a crucial step in cellular respiration. The enzyme complex responsible for this conversion is the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
Oxidative phosphorylation: This refers to the process in which ATP is synthesized through the transfer of electrons in the electron transport chain. It does not involve the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
Oxidative carboxylation: This term generally refers to processes where a carboxyl group is added to a molecule in the presence of oxygen. It is not specifically related to the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
Oxidative dehydration: This term generally refers to the removal of water, often in the presence of oxygen. It is not specifically related to the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
32. Callus is produced from the explant as a result of :
Differentiation
De-differentiation
Re-differentiation
Regeneration
Ans: B
Callus is produced from the explant as a result of de-differentiation.
De-differentiation refers to the process by which specialized cells lose their specific characteristics and revert to a more primitive, undifferentiated state. In plant tissue culture, when an explant (a piece of plant tissue) is cultured in vitro under certain conditions, the cells undergo de-differentiation and form a mass of undifferentiated cells known as callus. From this callus, further development and differentiation can occur, leading to the regeneration of whole plants through subsequent stages of tissue culture.
33. Which among the following make the pioneer community in a xerarch ?
Aristida
Grimmia
Lecanora
Parmelia
Ans: C
Xerarch refers to series of developmental stages in an arid area like bare rock. Lichen stage is the first stage in Lithosere (or succession on bare rock). Bare rock is invaded first by crustose lichens, e.g., Graphis, Rhizocarpon. They corrode the rock at places causing foliose lichen, e.g., Parmelia, Dermatocarpon to invade and eliminate crustose lichens and creating conditions for invasion by mosses. In tropics, blue-green algae are pioneers instead of lichens in lithosere.
Aristida: Aristida is a genus of grasses and is less likely to be part of the pioneer community in xerarch succession.
Grimmia: Grimmia is a genus of mosses, and mosses are often found in the early stages of ecological succession, including xerarch succession.
Lecanora: Lecanora is a genus of lichens, and lichens are indeed common pioneer organisms in xerarch succession.
Parmelia: Parmelia is another genus of lichens, and like Lecanora, it is capable of colonizing barren substrates.
34. In —----- the stamens are modified and are known as translators.
Asclepiadaceae
Asteraceae
Rubiaceae
Rutaceae
Ans: A
Characters of Asclepiadaceae
Plants herbs, shrubs, mostly twiners and rarely trees; leaves opposite, simple, entire margin rarely alternate; Inflorescence cymose or racemose; flowers hermaphrodite, pentamerous; Calyx of 5 sepals, imbricate; petals 5, gamopetalous, corona arising as outgrowth of petals or stamens; stamens 5, fused with stigmatic disc forming gynostegium; pollens forming pollinia; carpels bicarpellary, syncarpous, ovaries and style free, only stigma fused to form disc, marginal placentation, Fruit follicles.
Androecium: Stamens 5, synandrous, gynostegium (stamens fused with stigmatic disc to form gynostegium), anthers dithecous, epipetalous, coherent; the pollen grains of each half anther usually agglutinated into granular mass of tetrads or waxy pollen called pollinium (Asclepias, Calotropis). Thus each stamen has two pollinia. The pollinia of two adjacent anther halves are connected together at the black, dot-like gland called corpusculum by appendages called – retinacula. The two pollinia (of adjacent anther halves), two retinacula and a corpusculum together form a single translator. So in all there are 5 translators.
35. In honey bees drones are developed by means of :
Pseudocarpy
Parthenogenesis
Apomixis
Parthenocarpy
Ans: B
In honey bees, drones are developed by means of parthenogenesis.
Parthenogenesis is a type of reproduction where females produce offspring without fertilization by males. In the case of honey bees, drones (male bees) are produced by the queen through parthenogenesis. The eggs laid by the queen are unfertilized, and they develop into drones. This is in contrast to worker bees and new queens, which develop from fertilized eggs and have a combination of genetic material from both the queen and a male bee (drone).
36. Vascular part of a dictyostele between two leaf gaps is called —--
Actinostele
Haplostele
Meristele
Plectostele
Ans: C
Solenostele - if the cylinder of vascular tissue contains no more than one leaf gap in any transverse section i.e. has non-overlapping leaf gaps. This type of stele is primarily found in fern stems today.
Dictyostele - if multiple gaps in the vascular cylinder exist in any one transverse section. The numerous leaf gaps and leaf traces give a dictyostele the appearance of many isolated islands of xylem surrounded by phloem. Each of the apparently isolated units of a dictyostele can be called a meristele. Among living plants, this type of stele is found only in the stems of ferns.
Eustele - in this arrangement, the primary vascular tissue consists of vascular bundles, usually in one or two rings around the pith. In addition to being found in stems, the eustele appears in the roots of monocot flowering plants. The vascular bundles in a eustele can be collateral with the phloem on only one side of the xylem or bicollateral with phloem on both sides of the xylem, as in some Solanaceae.
There is also a variant on the eustele found in monocots like maize and rye. The variation has numerous scattered bundles in the stem and is called an atactostele (characteristic of monocot stem).
37. —---- act as elastic buffers between guard cells and epidermal cells.
Bundle sheath cells
Mesophyll cells
Stomatal hair
Subsidiary cells
Ans: D
Subsidiary cells act as elastic buffers between guard cells and epidermal cells. Subsidiary cells surround the guard cells in the stomatal complex, providing support and helping to maintain the shape and function of the stomata. They play a role in the control of stomatal opening and closing by influencing the turgor pressure of the guard cells.
38. Choose the correct match from the following :
Conical root :------; Napiform root:------; Fusiform root :------; Moniliform root :-------
Turnip, Radish, Carrot, Asparagus
Carrot, Turnip, Radish, Momordica
Asparagus, Beet root, Carrot, Dahlia
Beet root, Radish, Turnip, Carrot
Ans: B
Conical root: Carrot - The conical root is shaped like a cone, tapering to a point. Carrot is an example of a plant with a conical root. The thickened part of the root is where the plant stores nutrients.
Napiform root: Turnip - The napiform root is characterized by a large, spherical or nearly spherical shape, resembling a turnip. Turnip is an example of a plant with a napiform root. The root swells into a bulbous form, and it is used for nutrient storage.
Fusiform root: Radish - The fusiform root is spindle-shaped, meaning it is wider in the middle and tapers towards both ends. Radish is an example of a plant with a fusiform root. The radish stores nutrients in the enlarged central part of the root.
Moniliform root: Momordica - The moniliform root is characterized by a bead-like appearance, with swollen sections at intervals. Momordica is an example of a plant with a moniliform root. The root has constrictions at intervals, giving it a beaded appearance.
39. Arrange the steps in a PCR in correct order :
Denaturation of strands
Attaching of primers by cooling
Heating
DNA synthesis
Ans: C
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a widely used technique for amplifying DNA.
The correct order of steps in a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is as follows:
Heating (Denaturation of strands): The initial step involves heating the DNA to a high temperature (typically around 94-98°C). This causes the denaturation or separation of the two DNA strands, breaking the hydrogen bonds between them.
Attaching primers by cooling: After denaturation, the reaction temperature is lowered. During this step, primers (short DNA sequences that are complementary to the target DNA) anneal or bind to the single-stranded DNA.
DNA synthesis: DNA synthesis occurs during this step. The temperature is increased to an optimal range for the DNA polymerase enzyme to extend the primers, synthesizing new DNA strands complementary to the target sequence.
40. Secretin stimulates :
Salivary glands
Pancreas
Gallbladder
Gastric glands
Ans: B
Secretin stimulates the pancreas. Secretin is a hormone produced by the S cells of the duodenum in response to the acidity of chyme (partially digested food) entering the small intestine from the stomach. When secretin is released into the bloodstream, it acts on the pancreas to stimulate the secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice. This alkaline pancreatic juice helps neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small intestine, creating a more favorable environment for the action of digestive enzymes and protecting the intestinal lining.
41. Choose the correct order of the types of ovules seen in the diagram :
Hemi-anatropous, Anatropus, Amphitropus
Campylotropus, Amphitropus, Circinotropus
Circinotropus, Anatropus, Amphitropus
Hemitropus, Campylotropus, Anatropus
Ans: B
Hemi-anatropous: Refers to an ovule with a slight curvature, but not fully inverted. It is an intermediate stage between orthotropous and anatropous.
Anatropous: Describes an ovule that is completely inverted or turned back on itself, with the micropyle and funiculus at the same end.
Amphitropous: An ovule with an intermediate orientation between anatropous and campylotropous. The ovule is slightly inverted, but less than in the case of anatropous.
Campylotropous: Describes an ovule that is curved, but not fully inverted. The micropyle and funiculus are close together at one end.
Circinotropous: Describes an ovule with a coiled or curved orientation, similar to campylotropous but with a more pronounced curvature.
Hemitropous: Describes an ovule that is half-inverted, with one side straight and the other curved.
42. —---- is the precursor of IAA, while —---- is the precursor of ethylene.
Glycine, Tryptophan
Lysine, Methionine
Methionine, Lysine
Tryptophan, Methionine
Ans: D
Tryptophan is the precursor for the production of the plant growth hormone indole-3-acetate, or auxin, which has been implicated in the regulation of a wide range of biological processes in plants.
Ethylene is a plant hormone which is present in gaseous form. It is formed by the breakdown of methionine, which is in all cells. Thus, methionine is called as the precursor of ethylene hormone. Ethylene hormones helps in the ripening of fruits when sprayed onto it.
43. The cells which secrete perforin are :
Plasma cells
Suppressor cells
Helper T cells
Killer T cells
Ans: D
The cells that secrete perforin are Killer T cells. Perforin is a protein released by cytotoxic T cells (also known as killer T cells) as part of the immune response. Perforin plays a role in the destruction of target cells, such as virus-infected or abnormal cells, by creating pores in their cell membranes, leading to cell lysis.
44. Ophiophilly is pollination by —---
Ant
Bat
Snail
Snake
Ans: D
Ophiophily is a type of pollination that involves snakes. Some plant species have evolved to be pollinated by snakes, and they have unique adaptations to attract and facilitate pollination by these reptiles.
45. Ubisch bodies are studded in :
Epidermis
Endothecium
Middle layers
Tapetal membrane
Ans: D
Ubisch bodies are specialized structures found within the tapetal cells of the anther in plants. The tapetum is a layer of nutritive tissue that surrounds the developing pollen grains within the anther. Ubisch bodies, also known as orbicules, are small, spherical or irregularly shaped structures found within the tapetal cells.
These structures are composed of lipids, proteins, and other substances. Ubisch bodies play a role in the development of pollen grains and are involved in the formation of the pollen coat. The pollen coat is the outermost layer of the pollen grain, and it has various functions, including protection of the pollen grain and assistance in pollen adherence during pollination.
46. The enzyme deoxynucleotidyl transferase adds poly G residues in the —---- RT-PCR :
3' end of RNA
5' end of RNA
3' end of cDNA
5' end of cDNA
Ans: C
In reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), the enzyme deoxynucleotidyl transferase adds poly G residues. During the synthesis of the complementary strand for the cDNA molecule, its 3’ end is unknown. Thus no primer can be formed which can synthesize its complementary strand. Here the enzyme deoxynucleotydil transferase adds poly – G residues in the 3’ end of cDNA so that oligo C primer can be used for the synthesis of its complementary strand.
47. Coxal bone is formed by the fusion of —--- bones.
2
3
4
5
Ans: B
The coxal bone, or hip bone, is formed by the fusion of three bones:
1. Ilium
2. Ischium
3. Pubis
These three bones come together to form the innominate or hip bone on each side of the pelvis. The junction of these three bones is called the acetabulum, which is the socket for the hip joint.
48. A polygenic trait is :
Blood group in humans
Hair colour in humans
Skin colour in humans
Coat colour of cats
Ans: C
A polygenic trait is a trait that is controlled by multiple genes, often with additive effects.
Blood group in humans: This is typically determined by multiple alleles at a single gene locus, making it more of a multiple allele trait than a polygenic trait.
Skin color in humans: Skin color is a polygenic trait. Multiple genes influence the production of pigments that contribute to skin color.
Hair color is a human trait that is influenced by multiple alleles.
Coat colour in mice is a phenomenon which is regulated by the presence of recessive epistasis where the recessive allele of one gene dominates the other gene and alternates the genotype and the phenotype.
49. Which one of the following is an immunosuppressant ?
Statins
Cyclosporin
Streptokinase
Enterokinase
Ans: B
Statins: Statins are drugs used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. They work by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is involved in cholesterol synthesis. While statins play a role in managing cardiovascular health, they are not immunosuppressants.
Cyclosporin: Cyclosporin is indeed an immunosuppressant drug. It is commonly used in organ transplantation to prevent the rejection of transplanted organs. Cyclosporin works by suppressing the immune system's response, particularly T-cell activation.
Streptokinase: Streptokinase is an enzyme that has thrombolytic properties. It is used in the treatment of certain types of blood clots, such as those causing heart attacks or strokes.
Enterokinase: Enterokinase is an enzyme found in the small intestine that plays a role in the activation of trypsinogen to trypsin. it is involved in the digestive processes of breaking down proteins in the intestines.
50. Choose the TRUE statement from the following :
In C4 plants, nitrate assimilation occurs in mesophyll cells.
In C3 plants, reduction of nitrate occurs in cytoplasm and nitrite reduction takes place in chloroplast.
In C4 plants, nitrate assimilation occurs in bundle sheath cells.
In C3 plants, reduction of nitrate occurs in chloroplast and nitrite reduction takes place in mitochondria.
1 and 2
3 and 4
1 and 4
3 only
Ans: A
51. Which of the following provides the most abstract learning experience ?
Field trip
Lecture cum demonstration
Lecturing
Multimedia presentation
Ans: C
The most abstract learning experience among the options provided is generally associated with: Lecture.
A lecture provides information and concepts in a verbal and abstract form, relying on spoken words and possibly visual aids. It tends to involve less direct hands-on or sensory experience compared to activities like field trips, demonstrations, or multimedia presentations. Lectures often focus on conveying abstract ideas, theories, and information through spoken communication.
52. Which of the following is an academic body to assist and advice central and state government on academic matters related to school education ?
NCTE
NCERT
SCERT
SIET
Ans: B
The academic body that assists and advises both central and state governments on matters related to school education is: NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training)
NCERT is an autonomous organization established to assist and advise the governments at the central and state levels on policies and programs for qualitative improvement in school education. It develops educational resources, conducts research, and plays a crucial role in curriculum development and educational reforms in India.
53. Zone of proximal development is —---
The zone to which the learner can reach by hard work
The space in which the learner cannot learn
The zone between what a learner can do without help and what he or she can do with help
The zone in which the learner is able to lean by himself
Ans: C
The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is a concept introduced by the psychologist Lev Vygotsky. It represents the range of tasks that a learner can perform with the help of a more knowledgeable person (such as a teacher, peer, or mentor) but cannot perform alone. It's the area where learning and development occur most effectively.
54. A teacher in a science class observed the speed and precision in executing a lab activity. Which of the following the teacher wants to evaluate ?
Affective objective
Attitudinal objective
Cognitive objective
Psychomotor objective
Ans: D
The psychomotor domain involves the development of physical skills and coordination. Speed and precision in executing a lab activity are related to the psychomotor domain, which focuses on the physical or motor skills students acquire and apply. This domain is relevant when assessing skills such as manipulation, coordination, and precision in a hands-on or laboratory setting.
55. Education aimed at all-rounded development and full flowering of the human potential of individual learners is reflected in :
Learning to be
Learning to live together
Learning to learn
Learning to do
Ans: A
The education aimed at all-rounded development and full flowering of the human potential of individual learners is reflected in: Learning to be
This concept is part of the four pillars of education proposed by UNESCO, and it emphasizes the holistic development of individuals, focusing on their personal development, well-being, and fulfillment. The four pillars are Learning to Know, Learning to Do, Learning to Be, and Learning to Live Together.
56. Which domain involves visualizing and formulating experiments, designing instruments and machines, relating objects and concepts in new ways?
Attitudinal Domain
Creativity Domain
Knowledge Domain
Process Domain
Ans: B
Creativity Domain - This domain is where individuals demonstrate creative thinking, problem-solving skills, and the ability to generate new ideas or solutions. It goes beyond the traditional boundaries of knowledge and often involves innovative and original approaches to tasks and challenges.
57. What is the full form of SCERT?
State Council for Educational Research and Training
State Council of Education, Research and Training
State Council of Educational Research and Training
State Council for Education, Research and Training
Ans: C
58. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of problem solving?
Checking validity of the result
Functional fixedness
No control over variables
Rigidity in thinking
Ans: A
When engaging in problem-solving, it is crucial to evaluate and verify the correctness and validity of the solutions or results obtained. This involves assessing whether the proposed solution addresses the problem effectively and meets the specified criteria. Checking the validity of the result is a key step in ensuring the quality of problem-solving outcomes.
59. In a science class the students appraised the importance of sustainable development. Which of the following objectives is realised ?
Application
Evaluation
Knowledge
Understanding
Ans: B
"Evaluation" refers to the process of assessing, appraising, or judging the performance, progress, or effectiveness of individuals, programs, courses, or other educational components. Evaluation is a broader term that encompasses various activities and methods for gathering information to make informed judgments or decisions.
60. "The curriculum is the tool in the hands of the artist (the teacher) to mould his material (the pupil) according to his ideal (objective) in his studio (the school)." Who said this?
Cunningham
John Dewy
Peter F Oliva
Ralph Tyler
Ans: A
61. Test-retest method is used to establish —---
Objectivity of a test
Practicability of a test
Reliability of a test
Validity of a test
Ans: C
The test-retest method is used to establish the reliability of a measurement or assessment tool. Reliability refers to the consistency or stability of the results obtained from a test or measurement over time or across different administrations. The test-retest method involves administering the same test or measurement to the same group of individuals on two separate occasions and then comparing the scores to assess the consistency of the results.
62. Which of the following is the correct sequence from lower to higher learning outcomes under the affective domain ?
Responding
Receiving
Characterising
Valuing
Organizing
Ans: D
In the affective domain, which deals with emotions, attitudes, and values, the correct sequence from lower to higher learning outcomes is often described using a hierarchy proposed by Benjamin Bloom. The sequence is as follows:
1. Receiving: Being aware of, passively attending to, or acknowledging a stimulus.
2. Responding: Showing a willingness to respond or participate actively.
3. Valuing: Attaching a value or appreciating the worth of an object, phenomenon, or behavior.
4. Organizing: Organizing and prioritizing values according to their importance.
5. Characterization by a Value or Value Complex: Internalizing values and demonstrating consistency in behavior based on those values.
This sequence represents an ascending order of complexity and depth in the affective domain.
63. A student is required to use concepts he learned in the previous grade to understand new information and concepts about a science topic in his current class is —----
Concentric curriculum
Child centered curriculum
Spiral curriculum
Subject centered curriculum
Ans: C
In a spiral curriculum, topics are revisited and built upon in a cyclical manner, allowing students to deepen their understanding and skills over time. This approach contrasts with a linear or concentric curriculum, where topics are covered once and not revisited. Spiral curricula are designed to reinforce and expand upon previously learned concepts, fostering a more comprehensive and interconnected understanding of the subject matter.
64. 'Education is regarded as a means of preserving the cultural heritage of humanity'. This is envisaged by which of the following principle?
Principle of integration
Principle of utility
Principle of Conservation
Principle of community centeredness
Ans: C
65. Which of the following comes under the Cognitive domain ?
Attitudes and feelings
Comprehending the meaning
Learning complex skills
Valuing an object
Ans: B
The cognitive domain involves intellectual activities and the development of knowledge and mental skills.
Comprehending the meaning falls under the Cognitive domain.
The cognitive domain, according to Bloom's taxonomy, includes activities such as remembering, understanding, applying, analyzing, evaluating, and creating. Comprehending the meaning is associated with understanding and falls within the cognitive realm.
66. Which of the following is the objective of NCTE ?
Accreditation of teacher education colleges
Coordinate and monitor teacher education
Organizing teacher eligibility tests
Providing grants to higher education colleges
Ans: B
The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) in India has several objectives, but a primary goal is to ensure the planned and coordinated development of teacher education at all levels. Specifically, the main objective of NCTE is to achieve planned and coordinated development of the teacher education system throughout the country, the regulation and proper maintenance of norms and standards in the teacher education system, and the proper accreditation and recognition of teacher education institutions.
67. Which of the following is a characteristic of critical pedagogy ?
Neutrality of knowledge
Reflection and action
Teacher controlled activities
One-dimensional learning
Ans: B
A characteristic of critical pedagogy is: Reflection and action
Critical pedagogy, as a concept and approach in education, was developed by Brazilian educator and philosopher Paulo Freire. Freire's work, particularly outlined in his seminal book "Pedagogy of the Oppressed," laid the foundation for critical pedagogy. Critical pedagogy is not a fixed set of methods but rather a philosophy that encourages educators to engage in critical thinking and reflection to promote social justice and challenge oppressive systems.
Critical pedagogy is an educational philosophy and approach that emphasizes critical thinking, social justice, and the development of learners as critically conscious individuals who engage in reflection and action to challenge and transform oppressive social structures. It encourages students to critically analyze information, question assumptions, and actively participate in their own learning and the transformation of society. The emphasis is on fostering a sense of agency and the ability to enact positive change.
68. The method which emphasizes the placement of the individual within the context of social connections, historical events, and life experiences is —---
Biographical method
Experimental method
Heuristic method
Project method
Ans: A
The biographical method involves studying an individual's life and experiences within the broader context of social, historical, and cultural influences. It looks at the interconnectedness of personal narratives with larger societal structures and events. This method is often used in fields such as sociology, psychology, and education to understand the development and experiences of individuals in a broader context.
69. In relative grading,-------
A random letter grade is given.
All students above a fixed value receive an A.
Each value range is assigned a letter grade.
Grades are given based on a student's performance relative to others.
Ans: D
Relative grading involves ranking students in a class or group based on their performance and assigning grades according to their position in that ranking. The grades are determined by how well students perform in comparison to their peers, rather than against a fixed standard.
70. Which among the following is NOT a process skill in Science ?
Classifying
Interpreting
Memorising
Predicting
Ans: C
Process skills in science refer to a set of essential skills that students use to engage with scientific concepts, conduct experiments, and make sense of the natural world. These skills are fundamental to the scientific inquiry process and are often categorized into several key areas. Here are some common process skills in science:
Observation: The ability to use the senses to gather information about the natural world. This includes seeing, hearing, touching, tasting, and smelling.
Communication: Effectively conveying scientific information, findings, and ideas through writing, speaking, or visual representation.
Classification: Grouping and categorizing objects, organisms, or phenomena based on shared characteristics or properties.
Measurement: Determining the dimensions, quantity, or extent of something using appropriate tools and units.
Inference: Drawing logical conclusions or predictions based on observations and evidence.
Prediction: Anticipating future outcomes or trends based on existing knowledge and observations.
Hypothesis Formation: Proposing a testable explanation for a scientific phenomenon or problem.
Experimentation: Designing and conducting experiments to test hypotheses and collect data.
Data Collection and Analysis: Gathering information systematically and using various methods to interpret and analyze data.
71. The Psychomotor domain was classified by:
Benjamin S Bloom
Bruner
Krathwohl
Simpson
Ans: D
Robert J. Simpson, an American educator, was responsible for developing the Psychomotor domain of learning outcomes. The classification was later integrated into Benjamin S. Bloom's taxonomy, which is a comprehensive framework that categorizes educational objectives and learning outcomes across different domains, including the Cognitive, Affective, and Psychomotor domains.
72. The type of evaluation used to assess the progress of learner during instruction is :
Formative Evaluation
Placement Evaluation
Prognostic Evaluation
Summative Evaluation
Ans: A
Formative evaluation occurs during the instructional process and is focused on providing feedback to both learners and instructors to improve learning outcomes. It helps identify areas of strength and weakness, allowing for adjustments and enhancements to instruction while it is still ongoing. Formative evaluation is typically continuous and is used to shape and guide the learning process. It is in contrast to summative evaluation, which is conducted at the end of an instructional period to assess overall learning outcomes.
73. Which of the following is NOT a lab rule?
Acid can be diluted by adding acid into water
Acid can be diluted by adding water into acid
Be acquainted with the handling of first aid kit and fire extinguisher
Do not handle chemicals with bare hands
Ans: B
In a laboratory setting, it is essential to follow the correct procedure for diluting acids, which is to add acid slowly to water, not the other way around. Adding water to concentrated acid can cause a rapid release of heat and potentially lead to splattering or other hazards. The correct procedure is to add Acid to Water.
74. Which of the following is a domain in Mc Cormick and Yager-Taxonomy of teaching science ?
Application
Analysis
Evaluation
Synthesis
Ans: A
Taxonomy of science education
Science has been given an important place in the curriculum because of some special values provided only by science & not by any other subjects. The view that the processes of science are important as the product has come into science education. According to the taxonomy of science education formulated by Mc Cormack and Yager science education emphasize five domains. They are:
1. Knowledge domain (Knowledge & understanding)
2. Process domain (Exploring & discovering)
3. Creativity domain (Imaging & creating)
4. Attitudinal domain (Feeling & valuing)
5. Application domain (Using & applying)
6. Nature of science domain (AAAS-1990, American Association for the Advancement of Science)
75. The initiative launched by the KITE to empower the students in the field of technology by providing adequate training is —---
Computer assisted Instruction
Computer based Instruction
First Bell program
Hi School Kuttikkoottam
Ans: D
The initiative launched by KITE (Kerala Infrastructure and Technology for Education) to empower students in the field of technology by providing adequate training is the Hi School Kuttikkoottam program. This program aims to impart technology-oriented skills and knowledge to students in Kerala, India.
76. Three part structural foundation 'House, Assignment, Laboratory' is the key feature of —---
Dalton plan
Experimental method
Heuristic method
Project method
Ans: A
The three-part structural foundation of "House, Assignment, Laboratory" is a key feature of the Dalton Plan. The Dalton Plan is an educational method named after the American educator Helen Parkhurst. It emphasizes the collaboration between teachers and students and involves individualized instruction, project-based learning, and the integration of theory and practice through assignments and laboratory work.
77. In which of the stock registers details about Chemicals, pins, wires, rubber tubes which are bought for the lab purpose will be entered ?
Breakable stock register
Consumable stock register
Permanent stock register
Requirement register
Ans: B
Details about chemicals, pins, wires, rubber tubes, and other items bought for lab purposes are typically entered in the **Consumable Stock Register.** The consumable stock register keeps track of items that are used or consumed in the daily operations of a laboratory and need to be replenished regularly.
78. Which of the following is NOT a factor to be considered in the preparation of an achievement test ?
Weightage to objectives
Weightage to content
Weightage to difficulty level
Weightage to student's interest
Ans: D
Weightage to student's interest is typically not a factor to be considered in the preparation of an achievement test.
When preparing an achievement test, the focus is generally on assessing a student's knowledge and understanding of the specified objectives and content. The test is designed to measure what has been explicitly taught and learned. While student engagement and interest are crucial for effective learning, they are not typically factored into the test design as explicitly as objectives, content coverage, and difficulty level. The primary consideration is assessing mastery of the material taught.
79. What does NCF stand for ?
National Curriculum Foundation
National Curriculum Framework
National Curricular Framework
National Curricular Foundation
Ans: B
NCF stands for National Curriculum Framework. It refers to a framework or guideline that outlines the structure and content of the national curriculum in education. National Curriculum Frameworks are developed by educational authorities or bodies at the national level and provide a framework for designing and implementing the curriculum in schools.
80. Social Constructivism views learning as :
Acquisition of knowledge and information without any help from the teacher.
Emphasis on Individualized learning.
Passive repetitive process for learning.
Process of meaning making by active engagement of the learner.
Ans: D
In Social Constructivism, learning is seen as a dynamic process where individuals actively construct knowledge and meaning through their interactions with the social environment, including other people, cultural artefacts, and the physical world. Learners are actively engaged in making sense of information, and knowledge is considered a product of social interactions and collaborative processes. It contrasts with more traditional views of learning as passive reception of information.
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