K-TET EXAM FEBRUARY 2022 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER CATEGORY - III - NATURAL SCIENCE

 1. —----- is the first transgenic virus resistant plant.

1. Cotton

2. Rice

3. Tobacco

4. Tomato

Ans: C

Transgenic Crop in World: The tobacco plant, which was produced in 1982 and was antibiotic-resistant, was the world's first genetically modified crop.  However, in 1992, China became the first country to commercialize the first transgenic plant, the virus-resistant tobacco plant.

Transgenic Crop in India: Bt brinjal was the first transgenic crop developed in India, with a desired gene isolated from the Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria. 

This is an insect-resistance gene that protects the crop from insect attack. This gene was also inserted into the Cotton crop, resulting in Bt cotton. 

The Bt gene encodes a poisonous protein that can kill insects but has no effect on Bacillus thuringiensis because its cytoplasm is acidic and this protein is inactive in an acidic environment.  However, when insects eat a crop, this gene enters their gut and becomes activated because the pH of their gut is alkaline.

The Maharashtra Hybrid Seed Company developed Bt Brinjal. However, Bt brinjal is now banned in India and countries such as the United States because it loses healthy nutrients and contains a gene that is harmful to humans. As a result, Bt brinjal was the first transgenic crop developed in India.

2. Formation of embryo directly from the nucellus and integument is known as —-----

1. Apogamy

2. Apomixis

3. Apospory

4. Adventive polyembryony

Ans: D

Polyembryony is the occurrence of more than one embryo in a single seed. In adventive polyembryony there is formation of extra embryos due to sporophytic budding. One or more sporophytic cells, either nucellus or integuments undergo stages of embryogeny and eventually develop into mature embryos.

Apospory is the development of gametophyte from the sporophyte without the formation of spores.

Apogamy is the development of sporophyte from the gametophyte without the fusion of gametes.

Apomixis is a kind of asexual reproduction in which a viable embryo is formed within the confines of the seed coat without meiosis and syngamy.

3. Which one of the disease is caused by the deficiency of vitamin D?

1. Pellagra

2. Osteomalacia

3. Scurvy

4. Cheilosis

Ans: B

Osteomalacia is a disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for the proper absorption of calcium and phosphorus in the body. A deficiency of vitamin D can lead to softening and weakening of the bones, which is characteristic of osteomalacia. Other symptoms may include bone pain, muscle weakness, and an increased risk of fractures.

Pellagra is caused by a deficiency of niacin (vitamin B3), scurvy is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, and cheilosis is associated with a deficiency of B vitamins, particularly B2 (riboflavin).

4. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of glutamic acid by —-----

1. Leucine

2. Asparagine

3. Valine

4. Glycine

Ans: C

Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of glutamic acid by valine. In individuals with sickle cell anaemia, a single nucleotide change in the haemoglobin gene results in the replacement of the amino acid glutamic acid with valine at a specific position in the haemoglobin protein. It is caused due to point mutation (substitution) in the gene that codes for beta haemoglobin chain. Due to this mutation glutamic acid is replaced by valine at the 6th position of the beta haemoglobin chain.This genetic mutation leads to the formation of abnormal haemoglobin called haemoglobin S, which can cause red blood cells to become misshapen and take on a characteristic sickle shape, leading to various health problems.

5. Which cranial nerve controls the heart beat ?

1. Vagus

2. Trigeminal

3. Trochlear

4. Abducens

Ans: A

The cranial nerve that controls the heartbeat is the Vagus nerve, which is the tenth cranial nerve. The Vagus nerve, also known as Cranial Nerve X, plays a crucial role in regulating various autonomic functions, including heart rate. It has both sensory and motor functions, and its parasympathetic fibres help to slow down the heart rate and reduce blood pressure.

6. Adrenaline is formed from:

1. Tryptophan

2. Tyrosine

3. Proline

4. Glycine

Ans: B

Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is formed from the amino acid tyrosine. Tyrosine is converted into dopamine, which is then further converted into norepinephrine and finally into adrenaline (epinephrine). This process occurs within the adrenal glands, particularly in the adrenal medulla, as part of the body's response to stress or the "fight or flight" reaction.

7. In oxidative phosphorylation, the electron transport system synthesises —----- ATP molecules.

1. 30

2. 34

3. 36

4. 38

Ans: B

In oxidative phosphorylation, the electron transport system synthesizes approximately 34 ATP molecules. It's important to note that the exact number can vary, and in some cases, the value of 32 to 38 ATP molecules is considered, depending on various factors such as the shuttle systems used to transport electrons across mitochondrial membranes. However, 34 ATP is a commonly used value to represent the net ATP yield in oxidative phosphorylation under typical conditions.

8. The chloroplasts are girdle-shaped in —----, while star-shaped chloroplasts are seen in —-----

1. Ulothrix, Oedogonium

2. Spirogyra, Chlamydamonas

3. Oedogonium, Ulothrix

4. Ulothrix, Zygnema

Ans: D

The chloroplasts are girdle-shaped in Ulothrix, while star-shaped chloroplasts are seen in Zygnema.

So, the correct pairings are:

- Ulothrix: Girdle-shaped chloroplasts

- Zygnema: Star-shaped chloroplasts

Green algae are fascinating organisms. Apart from the variety found in their thallus organizations, ranging from single-celled to colonies, they present a variety of shapes of chloroplasts in their cells.

The chloroplast is a characteristic feature of green algae or Chlorophyceae. A chloroplast is a double membrane-bound structure, primarily involved in the process of photosynthesis and storage of starch. They contain the green pigment called chlorophyll present in the thylakoid membranes that occur in two to six bands per chloroplast. Thylakoids are not free. The glucose is stored in the form of starch, just like higher plants. The starch is stored in the chloroplasts of green algae in special structures called pyrenoids. The pyrenoids are made up of layers of starch. 

There are following shapes of chloroplasts that are most notably present in different species of green algae:

> Cup-shaped as in Chlamydomonas, Volvox

> Discoid as in Vaucheria, Chara

> Girdle shaped or band-shaped in Ulothrix

> Reticulate shaped or meshwork-like as in Oedogonium

> Spiral shaped as in Spirogyra

> Stellate or star-shaped as in Zygnema

9. Anticodons are found in :

1. DNA

2. rRNA

3. mRNA 

4. tRNA

Ans: D

Anticodons are found in transfer RNA (tRNA). 

Transfer RNA plays a crucial role in protein synthesis by bringing amino acids to the ribosome, where they are linked together to form a protein chain based on the information encoded in messenger RNA (mRNA). The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides on tRNA that is complementary to a specific codon on mRNA during translation. This base-pairing interaction between the anticodon on tRNA and the codon on mRNA ensures the correct alignment of amino acids and facilitates the synthesis of a protein with a specific sequence.

10. The type of stomata in Rubiaceae is:

1. Anisocytic

2. Anomocytic

3. Diacytic

4. Paracytic

Ans: D

The type of stomata in Rubiaceae is commonly paracytic. Paracytic stomata have two subsidiary cells that are parallel to each other, flanking the guard cells. This arrangement is a characteristic feature of the stomatal complexes in the Rubiaceae family, which includes plants like coffee (Coffea) and gardenia (Gardenia).

The stomata are minute pores which occur in the epidermis of the plants. Each stoma remains surrounded by two kidneys or bean shaped epidermal cells, the guard cells. The stomata may occur on any part of a plant except the roots. The epidermal cells bordering the guard cells are called accessory cells or subsidiary cells.

The dicotyledons stomata were firstly classified into 4 types by Vesque in the year 1889. The names for your types were given after the family in which these types were first studied. The four types as defined by Vesque (1889) are as follows:

(i) Ranunculaceous type: Stoma mother cell is cut off by a simple U- shaped wall; mature stomata are surrounded by several irregularly disposed epidermal cells.

(ii) Cruciferous type: The stoma mother cell is cut off in the primordial cell by three or more cell walls inclined to one another at an angle of about 60°; mature stomata are surrounded by three subsidiary cells, of which one is smaller than the other two.

(iii) Caryophyllaceous or Labiateous type: Stoma mother cell is cut off into the primordial cell by two U-shaped cell walls oriented in opposite directions, the second being attached to the concavity of the first, mature stomata are suspended in the middle of an epidermal cell by two cell walls perpendicular to the pore.

(iv) Rubiaceous type: Stoma mother cell is cut off in the primordial cell by two parallel walls; mature stomata are accompanied by two subsidiary cells parallel to the long axis of the pore.

Metcalfe and Chalk (1950) replaced these terms by more general descriptive ones: "anomocytic” for “ranunculaceous”, "anisocytic” for "Cruciferous”; "diacytic” for "Caryophyllaceous” or "labiateous” and "paracytic” for "rubiaceous”.

(i) Anomocytic (irregular-celled) type: The stoma is surrounded by a definite number of cells that are not different from the remainder of the epidermis.

(ii) Anisocytic (unequal celled) type: The stoma is surrounded by three cells of which one is distinctly smaller than the other two.

(iii) Diacytic (Cross-celled) type: The stoma is enclosed by a pair of subsidiary cells whose common wall is at right angles to the guard cells.

(iv) Paracytic (parallel celled) type: The stoma is accompanied on either side by one or more subsidiary cells parallel to the long axis of the pore

and guard cells.

11. —------ is the condition in which maturation of male and female sex organs occur at different times.

1. Apogamy

2. Dichogamy

3. Herkogamy

4. Polygamy

Ans: B

The condition in which maturation of male and female sex organs occurs at different times is called Dichogamy.

1. Apogamy:- Apogamy is a condition in which a sporophyte or embryo develops directly from a cell other than a gamete, without the occurrence of fertilization. This is a form of asexual reproduction that bypasses the usual sexual processes.

2. Herkogamy:- Herkogamy refers to the condition where there is a physical separation between the sexual organs of a flower (stigma and anthers) to prevent self-pollination. This physical separation often involves differences in the lengths of floral structures, reducing the chances of a flower's own pollen coming into contact with its stigma.

3. Polygamy:- Polygamy is a broader term used in the context of reproductive systems and refers to the occurrence of multiple sexual partners or mates. In plants, polygamy might be used to describe a condition where a single plant has both male and female reproductive structures or can be involved in multiple pollination mechanisms.

In summary:

- Apogamy involves asexual reproduction without fertilization.

- Herkogamy involves physical separation of sexual organs to prevent self-pollination.

- Polygamy refers to multiple sexual partners or reproductive structures.

- Dichogamy specifically refers to the timing difference in the maturation of male and female sex organs within a single individual or flower.

12. The enzyme used for nick translation is —-----

1. DNA Polymerase 1

2. DNA Polymerase II

3. DNA ligase

4. Kinase

Ans: A

The enzyme used for nick translation is DNA Polymerase I. In the process of nick translation, DNA Polymerase I synthesises a complementary strand of DNA in the 5' to 3' direction while simultaneously digesting the existing DNA strand in the 3' to 5' direction. This enzyme is commonly used in molecular biology techniques such as DNA labelling and cloning.

13. Choose the correct sequence:

1. Cenozoic → Mesozoic → Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic

2. Archaeozoic → Mesozoic → Palaeozoic → Cenozoic

3. Archaeozoic → Cenozoic → Palaeozoic → Mesozoic

4. Cenozoic → Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic

Ans: A

The correct sequence of geological eras from the earliest to the most recent is: Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Cenozoic

1. Archaeozoic: This term is not commonly used in modern geology. The more widely recognized term is "Precambrian," which encompasses the Hadean, Archean, and Proterozoic eons. The Precambrian represents the earliest part of Earth's history, predating the appearance of complex life forms.

2. Palaeozoic: This era spans from about 541 to 252 million years ago. It includes significant events such as the Cambrian Explosion, where many major groups of animals first appear in the fossil record, as well as the colonization of land by plants and animals during the later stages.

3. Mesozoic: Following the Palaeozoic, the Mesozoic era ranges from approximately 252 to 66 million years ago. It is often referred to as the "Age of Dinosaurs" because dinosaurs dominated terrestrial ecosystems during this time. It concludes with the mass extinction event that led to the demise of many species, including most dinosaurs.

4. Cenozoic: The Cenozoic era began about 66 million years ago and continues to the present day. It is characterized by the diversification and dominance of mammals, including the evolution of primates and eventually humans. The Cenozoic also includes the Quaternary period, marked by the presence of Homo sapiens and recent ice ages.

14. Which one is the pioneer community in a xerosere ?

1. Dermatocarpon

2. Polytrichum

3. Rhizocarpon

4. Rhus

Ans: C

In a xerosere, which is a type of ecological succession that occurs in dry or arid environments, the pioneer community typically consists of hardy and drought-resistant organisms that can establish themselves in the harsh conditions. Among the options provided:

Rhizocarpon is more likely to be a pioneer organism in a xerosere. Rhizocarpon is a genus of lichen, which is a symbiotic association between a fungus and a photosynthetic partner (usually an alga or cyanobacterium). Lichens are known for their ability to colonise and thrive in challenging environments, including arid conditions. They can help initiate soil formation and create conditions that are more favourable for other plant species to follow in the succession process.

15. COP 26 was held at:

1. Geneva

2. Germany

3. Glasgow

4. Paris

Ans: C

The COP26 (26th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties) was held in Glasgow, Scotland. It took place from October 31 to November 12, 2021. The conference brought together world leaders, negotiators, and stakeholders to discuss and negotiate actions to address climate change on a global scale.

16. During respiration, the mobile electron carriers of mitochondrial electron transport are:

1. Cytochrome a & Cytochrome a3

2. Cytochrome b1 & Cytochrome c1

3. FAD & Cytochrome c1

4. Ubiquinone & Cytochrome c

Ans: D

During respiration, the mobile electron carriers of mitochondrial electron transport include Ubiquinone (Coenzyme Q) & Cytochrome c. These carriers play a crucial role in transferring electrons between the protein complexes of the electron transport chain in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

The Electron Transport Chain (ETC) operating in the mitochondrial membrane has four protein complexes and two mobile carriers of electrons. These are CoQ (coenzyme-Q) also known as Ubiquinone and the cytochrome-C (Cyt C). CoQ is an organic molecule. The CoQ receives the electrons from the Complex-I and the Complex-II and it passes the electrons to the Complex-III. The Co-Q does not leave the inner membrane of the mitochondria because it is hydrophobic. Another mobile electron carrier called Cytochrome-C operates between the Complex-III and Complex-IV. It is located on the outer side of the inner membrane.

17. Which one of the following is a four carbon compound?

1. Malic acid

2. Acetyl CoA

3. Pyruvic acid

4. Citric acid

Ans: A

1. Malic Acid: - Malic acid is a four-carbon organic acid. Its chemical formula is C₄H₆O₅. Malic acid is found in various fruits, and it plays a role in the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle) during cellular respiration.

2. Acetyl CoA: - Acetyl CoA is a two-carbon compound. It is a crucial molecule in cellular metabolism and is formed during the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. Acetyl CoA plays a central role in the citric acid cycle, where it is further oxidized to release energy.

3. Pyruvic Acid:- Pyruvic acid is a three-carbon compound. It is an intermediate product in glycolysis, the initial stage of both aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration. Pyruvic acid can be converted into acetyl CoA to enter the citric acid cycle.

4. Citric Acid:- Citric acid is a six-carbon compound. It is a tricarboxylic acid and a key intermediate in the citric acid cycle. While citric acid itself has six carbon atoms, it is important to note that the carbon backbone is gradually oxidized during the citric acid cycle, leading to the release of energy.

In summary:

- Malic Acid: Four carbon atoms.

- Acetyl CoA: Two carbon atoms.

- Pyruvic Acid: Three carbon atoms.

- Citric Acid: Six carbon atoms.

18. Extranuclear genes occur in :

1. Mitochondria

2. Vacuole

3. Lysosomes

4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Ans: A

Extranuclear genes are genetic material located outside the cell nucleus. In eukaryotic cells, extranuclear genes can be found in organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts. Among the options provided, extranuclear genes occur in mitochondria. Mitochondria have their own genetic material in the form of circular DNA, and they replicate independently of the cell nucleus. Vacuoles, lysosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum do not contain their own genetic material and do not possess extranuclear genes.

19. —---- are rod-shaped sclereids found in the seed coats of pulses.

1. Asterosclereids

2. Brachysclereids

3. Macrosclereids

4. Trichosclereids

Ans: C

Rod-shaped sclereids found in the seed coats of pulses are called Macrosclereids.

Sclereids are a type of plant cells that provide structural support to the plant. They have thick, lignified cell walls, making them rigid and durable. Macrosclereids are a specific form of sclereids characterized by their elongated or rod-shaped structure.

In the context of the seed coats of pulses (legumes such as peas, beans, lentils), macrosclereids are often present. These rod-shaped cells contribute to the overall toughness and protection of the seed coat, helping to shield the seeds from external stresses and potential damage. The presence of macrosclereids in the seed coat adds mechanical strength, preventing easy rupture and protecting the enclosed seed from environmental factors and potential herbivores.

1. Asterosclereids: These are star-shaped sclereids characterized by radiating arms. They are often found in the flesh of some fruits, providing mechanical support.

2. Brachysclereids: Brachysclereids are short, branched sclereids. They contribute to the toughness of various plant tissues, such as the seed coats and the shells of nuts.

3. Trichosclereids: Trichosclereids are hair-like or elongated sclereids. They are commonly found in the outer layers of seeds and fruits, adding strength and protection.

In summary, the different types of sclereids have distinct shapes and are located in various plant tissues. They all serve the common purpose of providing mechanical support and protection to different parts of the plant, contributing to the overall structural integrity and defence mechanisms of the plant.

20. Protein present in cartilage is :

1. Cartilagin

2. Collagen

3. Chondrin

4. Ossein

Ans: C

Cartilage is the most important vertebrate connective tissue. The cells of cartilage, called chondrocytes are surrounded by an amorphous matrix which is known as Chondrin. Chondrin contains glycoproteins, basophilic chondroitin, and fine collagen fibres.

21. Which one is the most appropriate technique for producing haploid plants by plant tissue culture ?

1. Anther culture

2. Pollen culture

3. Protoplast culture

4. Protoplast fusion

Ans: B

Pollen culture is a technique of production of haploid plants by the culture of pollen grains obtained from an anther of a plant under the aseptic condition on artificial media of known composition. The technique was discovered by Guha and Maheshwari. The pollen was obtained by squeezing the anthers after surface sterilising with hypochlorite. The obtained pollen was cultured on nutrient media. The pollen develops into a callus which is treated with auxin it promotes rooting and when it is treated with cytokinin it stimulates cell maturation, differentiation and finally, promotes the development of stem. The haploid plants were developed because cytokinin stimulates cell differentiation which is caused due to the expression of genes. The expressed genes produce hormones and show its effect. For example, florigen hormone is released for flowering.

22. Choose the Mendelian disorder :

1. Thalassemia

2. Down's syndrome

3. Addison's disease

4. Grave's disease

Ans: A

The Mendelian disorder among the options provided is Thalassemia.

Thalassemia is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the genes that are involved in the production of haemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. Thalassemia follows Mendelian inheritance patterns, meaning it is passed down from parents to their children through specific genetic mechanisms.

The other conditions listed have different genetic bases:

- Down's syndrome: Down's syndrome is a chromosomal disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. It is not a Mendelian disorder because it results from a chromosomal abnormality rather than a single gene mutation.

- Addison's disease: Addison's disease is an autoimmune disorder affecting the adrenal glands, and it does not follow Mendelian inheritance. Autoimmune disorders often involve complex interactions between multiple genes and environmental factors.

- Grave's disease: Grave's disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism, and like Addison's disease, it does not follow Mendelian inheritance. It involves complex interactions between genes and environmental factors as well.

23. Gulf of Mannar is in :

1. Karnataka

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Gujarat

4. Telangana

Ans: B

The Gulf of Mannar is located in the southern part of India and is situated between the southeastern tip of India and the west coast of Sri Lanka. Therefore, the Gulf of Mannar is in the state of Tamil Nadu.

24. —------ is a solenostele cut up by crowded leaf gaps.

1. Actinostele

2. Dictyostele

3. Meristele

4. Protostele

Ans: B

Types of Stele -  The term stele refers to the central cylinder of vascular tissues consisting of xylem, phloem, pericycle and sometimes medullary rays with pith. There are two types of steles 1. Protostele 2. Siphonostele

1. Protostele: In protostele phloem surrounds xylem. The type includes Haplostele, Actinostele, Plectostele, and Mixed protostele.

(i) Haplostele: Xylem surrounded by phloem is known as haplostele. Example: Selaginella.

(ii) Actinostele: Star shaped xylem core is surrounded by phloem is known as actinostele. Example: Lycopodium serratum.

(iii) Plectostele: Xylem plates alternates with phloem plates. Example: Lycopodium clavatum.

(iv) Mixed prototostele: Xylem groups uniformly scattered in the phloem. Example: Lycopodium cernuum.

2. Siphonostele: In siphonostele xylem is surrounded by phloem with pith at the centre. It includes Ectophloic siphonostele, Amphiphloic siphonostele, Solenostele, Eustele, Atactostele and Polycylic stele.

(i) Ectophloic siphonostele: The phloem is restricted only on the external side of the xylem. Pith is in centre. Example: Osmunda.

(ii) Amphiphloic siphonostele: The phloem is present on both the sides of xylem. The pith is in the centre. Example: Marsilea.

(iii) Solenostele: The stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding the origin of the leaf trace.

(a) Ectophloic solenostele – Pith is in the centre and the xylem is surrounded by phloem Example: Osmunda.

(b) Amphiphloic solenostele – Pith is in the centre and the phloem is present on both sides of the xylem. Example: Adiantum pedatum.

(c) Dictyostele – The stele is separated into several vascular strands and each one is called meristele. Example: Adiantum capillus-veneris.

(iv) Eustele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles around the pith. Example: Dicot stem.

(v) Atactostele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles and are scattered in the ground tissue. Example: Monocot stem.

(vi) Polycyclicstele: The vascular tissues are present in the form of two or more concentric cylinders. Example: Pteridium.

25. —---- is the most suitable technique for detecting the presence of a gene product.

1. Dot blotting

2. Plaque blotting

3. Southern blotting

4. Western blotting

Ans: D

The most suitable technique for detecting the presence of a gene product is Western blotting. Western blotting is specifically used to detect and analyze proteins. It involves the separation of proteins by gel electrophoresis, followed by transfer to a membrane and detection using antibodies that bind to the target protein.

Dot blotting is a simplified technique for detecting specific proteins or nucleic acids but is not as widely used or versatile as Western blotting. Plaque blotting is a technique used in molecular biology to transfer plaques from a viral or bacterial lawn to a membrane for further analysis, primarily in studies related to bacteriophages.

Southern blotting, on the other hand, is used for detecting specific DNA sequences and is not the most suitable for detecting gene products directly, as it deals with nucleic acids rather than proteins.

26. Which one of the following is not a causative organism of ringworm ?

1. Epidermophyton

2. Trichophyton

3. Microsporum

4. Fusarium

Ans: D

Fusarium is not a causative organism of ringworm. Ringworm, also known as dermatophytosis, is a fungal infection of the skin, hair, or nails, and it is caused by various species of dermatophyte fungi. The three genera commonly associated with ringworm are Epidermophyton, Trichophyton, and Microsporum.

Fusarium is a genus of filamentous fungi, but it is not typically associated with causing dermatophytosis or ringworm. It is more commonly linked to plant diseases in crops, as well as opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals.

27. Clavicle is a bone of :

1. Thigh

2. Shank

3. Shoulder

4. Knee

Ans: C

The clavicle is a bone of the shoulder. It is commonly known as the collarbone and is a long, S-shaped bone that connects the scapula (shoulder blade) to the sternum (breastbone). The clavicle plays a crucial role in supporting the shoulder and facilitating the movement of the upper limb.

28. The antibodies produced to allergens are of —---- type.

1. IgA

2. IgG

3. IgD

4. IgE

Ans: D

The antibodies produced to allergens are of the IgE type. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is a class of antibodies that is associated with allergic reactions. When the immune system is exposed to allergens, such as pollen, pet dander, or certain foods, it can trigger the production of IgE antibodies. These IgE antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils, which are types of immune cells.

Upon subsequent exposure to the same allergen, the allergen can cross-link with the IgE antibodies on the surface of these cells, leading to the release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This release of mediators contributes to the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as itching, swelling, and inflammation.

1. IgA (Immunoglobulin A): - Found in mucosal areas, such as the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts.

   - Plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity and defense against pathogens at mucosal surfaces.

   - Secretory IgA is the dominant form in external secretions like saliva and tears.

2. IgG (Immunoglobulin G): - The most abundant antibody in the bloodstream, comprising about 75-80% of all antibodies.

   - Plays a key role in the immune system's defence against bacteria, viruses, and toxins.

   - Can cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to the developing foetus.

3. IgD (Immunoglobulin D):  - Found on the surface of B cells.

   - Its function is not entirely clear, but it may play a role in the activation of B cells.

   - Typically exists in low concentrations in the blood.

4. IgE (Immunoglobulin E):- Associated with allergic reactions and defense against parasites.

   - Binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators in response to allergens.

  - Involved in the early phases of the immune response to parasitic infections.

Each class of antibodies has specific roles in the immune system, and their activities contribute to the body's ability to defend against various pathogens and foreign substances.

29. Choose the CORRECT answer :

(i) 70S ribosomes are found in prokaryotes only

(її) 80S ribosomes have 60S and 40S subunits

(iii) 70S ribosomes have 50S and 305 subunits

1. True, True, True

2. True, False, True

3. False, True, True

4. True, True, False

Ans: C

(i) 70S ribosomes are found in prokaryotes, but they are also found in organelles of eukaryotes, such as mitochondria and chloroplasts. Therefore, the statement is False.

(ii) 80S ribosomes have 60S and 40S subunits. This statement is True. Eukaryotic ribosomes are composed of a large 60S subunit and a small 40S subunit, making a total of 80S.

(iii) 70S ribosomes have 50S and 30S subunits. This statement is True. Prokaryotic ribosomes, as well as the ribosomes in the organelles of eukaryotes, consist of a large 50S subunit and a small 30S subunit, making a total of 70S.

30. Which one of the following is not a secretion of basophils ?

1. Amphetamine

2. Heparin

3. Serotonin

4. Histamine

Ans: A

Amphetamine is not a secretion of basophils. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a role in the immune response. They contain granules in their cytoplasm that store various substances. The substances typically associated with basophils include:

1. Heparin: An anticoagulant (prevents blood clotting) released by basophils to help prevent the formation of blood clots.

2. Serotonin: A neurotransmitter and vasoconstrictor involved in various physiological processes, including blood vessel constriction.

3. Histamine: A compound that plays a key role in the inflammatory response. It increases the permeability of blood vessels and contributes to the symptoms of inflammation.

Amphetamine, on the other hand, is a synthetic compound that affects the central nervous system. It is not a natural secretion of basophils.

31. Choose the CORRECT statement from the following :

1. Squamous epithelium is found in the tubular parts of nephrons

2. Columnar epithelium is composed of cube like cells

3. Compound epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells

4. Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface of bronchioles

Ans: D

The correct statement is: Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface of bronchioles.

1. Squamous epithelium is not found in the tubular parts of nephrons. Simple squamous epithelium is found in structures like the Bowman's capsule in the kidney, not in the tubular parts of nephrons.

2. Columnar epithelium is composed of cells that are taller than they are wide. It is not composed of cube-like cells. Cuboidal epithelium consists of cube-shaped cells.

3. Compound epithelium is composed of multiple layers of cells, not a single layer. Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells.

4. Ciliated epithelium is indeed present in the inner surface of bronchioles. This type of epithelium has hair-like structures called cilia, which help move mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory tract.

32. —---- is responsible for passive absorption of water in tall plants.

1. Diffusion

2. Root pressure

3. Transpiration pull

4. Wall pressure

Ans: C

Transpiration pull is responsible for the passive absorption of water in tall plants. Transpiration is the process by which water vapour escapes from the stomata in the leaves into the atmosphere. As water evaporates from the leaf surface, it creates a negative pressure or tension in the leaf. This tension is transmitted down to the roots, creating a "pull" on the water column in the xylem vessels.

This transpiration pull helps in pulling water from the soil through the roots and into the plant, allowing for the passive absorption of water. It is an important mechanism for the upward movement of water in plants, particularly in tall trees.

33. Match the following and choose the CORRECT answer.

a	Syngenesious anthers	i	Asteraceae
b	Tetradynamous flowers	ii	Cucurbitaceae
c	Synandrous anthers	iii	Lamiaceae
d	Gynobasic style	iv	Rubiaceae

	a	b	c	d
A	i	iii	ii	iv
B	ii	iv	i	iii
C	i	iv	ii	iii
D	ii	iii	i	iv

Ans: C

Syngenesious: Anthers connate, filaments free. Example: Asteraceae.

Synandrous: Filaments and anthers are completely fused. Example: Coccinea.

Tetradynamous: Six stamens of which four with long filaments and two with short filaments. Example: Brassica.

Gynobasic style - Referring to a style arising from the base of the ovary. 

34. Cuticular transpiration is equal to stomatal transpiration in the case of —----

1. CAM plants

2. Halophytes

3. Heliophytes 

4. Sciophytes

Ans: D

Stomatal Transpiration

It is the evaporation of water from the stomata of the plants. Most of the water from the plants is transpired this way. The water near the surface of the leaves changes into vapour and evaporates when the stomata are open.

Cuticular Transpiration

It is the evaporation of water from the cuticle of the plants. The cuticle is a waxy covering on the surface of the leaves of the plants. About 5-10% of the water from the leaves is lost through cuticular transpiration. During dry conditions when the stomata are closed, more water is transpired through the cuticles.

1. CAM plants: - CAM (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism) plants have a unique photosynthetic adaptation to arid conditions. They open their stomata at night to take in carbon dioxide and store it as organic acids. During the day, when the stomata are closed to reduce water loss, these acids are broken down for photosynthesis. Cuticular transpiration may still occur, but it is not necessarily equal to stomatal transpiration.

2. Halophytes:- Halophytes are plants that can tolerate high salinity in the soil. While they may have specific adaptations to deal with salt stress, there isn't a direct correlation between halophytes and equal cuticular and stomatal transpiration.

3. Heliophytes:- Heliophytes are plants adapted to full sunlight. In these plants, both the cuticle and stomata are well-developed to maximize sunlight absorption for photosynthesis. 

4. Sciophytes:- Sciophytes are shade-loving plants that thrive in low-light conditions. In sciophytes, the reduced sunlight exposure leads to less reliance on stomatal transpiration. 

35. Which is the site of anaerobic respiration ?

1. Cytoplasm

2. Golgi body

3. Mitochondria

4. First phase in cytoplasm and second phase in mitochondria

Ans: A

The site of anaerobic respiration is the cytoplasm.

During anaerobic respiration, glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. Glycolysis is the initial phase of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. In anaerobic respiration, the process is followed by fermentation in the absence of oxygen. In contrast, during aerobic respiration, if oxygen is available, the process continues in the mitochondria after glycolysis.

36. Mumps is a painful swelling of :

1. Lacrimal glands

2. Ceruminous glands

3. Mammary glands

4. Parotid glands

Ans: D

Mumps is a painful swelling of the parotid glands.

The parotid glands are a pair of major salivary glands located on either side of the face, near the jaw and below the ears. Mumps is a viral infection caused by the mumps virus, and it primarily affects the salivary glands, especially the parotid glands. The swelling and pain associated with mumps are often most noticeable in these glands.

37. Which among the following is NOT a living fossil?

1. Cycas revoluta

2. Ginkgo biloba

3. Ginkgoites

4. Metasequoia

Ans: C

Among the options provided, Ginkgoites is NOT a living fossil.

1. Cycas revoluta (Sago palm): This is a living species of cycad and not a living fossil.

2. Ginkgo biloba (Ginkgo tree): Ginkgo biloba is considered a living fossil because it is the only living species in the division Ginkgophyta. It has remained relatively unchanged for millions of years.

3. Ginkgoites: Ginkgoites is not a living organism; it refers to fossilised leaves of plants belonging to the genus Ginkgo that existed in the past. Therefore, it is not a living fossil.

4. Metasequoia (Dawn redwood): Metasequoia is considered a living fossil because it was once thought to be extinct but was rediscovered, and living populations have been identified.

So, Ginkgoites is the option that does not represent a living organism; it refers to the fossilised remains of ancient Ginkgo plants.

38. The fovea consists of :

1. Rod and cone cells in equal numbers

2. Cones only

3. Rods only 

4. More rod cells than cone cells

Ans: B

The fovea consists mainly of cone cells.

1. Rod and cone cells in equal numbers: This statement is not accurate. The fovea, which is a small, central area in the retina, is specialized for high acuity vision and is densely packed with cone cells. Rod cells are more prevalent in the peripheral regions of the retina.

2. Cones only: While the fovea is rich in cone cells, it's not composed of cones exclusively. There may still be some rod cells present, but their density is much lower compared to cones.

3. Rods only: This is incorrect. Rod cells are more abundant in the peripheral regions of the retina, not in the fovea.

4. More rod cells than cone cells: This is not true for the fovea. The fovea contains a high concentration of cone cells, providing sharp visual acuity, especially in bright light conditions.

In summary, the fovea is primarily composed of cone cells, which are responsible for colour vision and high visual acuity.

39. Consuming —---- causes alkali disease in animals.

1. Aluminium accumulating plants

2. Lead accumulating plants

3. Selenium accumulating plants

4. Silica accumulating plants

Ans: C

Consuming Selenium accumulating plants can lead to alkali disease in animals.

1. Aluminium accumulating plants: Accumulation of aluminium in plants is not typically associated with alkali disease in animals. Aluminium toxicity is more related to issues in plant growth and development.

2. Lead accumulating plants: Lead toxicity can affect both plants and animals, but it is not directly linked to alkali disease.

3. Selenium accumulating plants: Selenium is an essential trace element, but excessive intake, particularly through plants that accumulate high levels of selenium, can lead to toxicity. Selenium toxicity in animals can manifest as alkali disease, which affects the nervous system and can be fatal.

4. Silica accumulating plants: Silica is not typically associated with alkali disease in animals. Silica has roles in plant structure and defence against pests but is not a common cause of animal diseases.

40. Choose the INCORRECT statement :

(i) Blepharoplasts are small star-shaped protoplasmic bodies that are concerned with the production of cilia in antherozoids of Cycas.

(ii) The sperms of Cycas are the largest among plants and they originate from the stalk cell.

(iii) In Pius, microspores germinate ex-situ

(iv) In Pinus, alveoli are concerned with the formation of endosperm.

1. (i) and (iii)

2. (ii) and (iii)

3. (iii) and (iv)

4. (i) and (iv)

Ans: B

(i) Blepharoplasts in Cycas: This statement is correct. Blepharoplasts are involved in the production of cilia in the antherozoids (sperms) of Cycas.

(ii) Sperms of Cycas: This statement is incorrect. The sperms of Cycas are indeed large, and they originate from the body cell.

(iii) Microspores germinate ex-situ in Pinus: This statement is incorrect. Microspores germinate in situ (within the pollen grain) in Pines (Pinus), not ex-situ.

(iv) Alveoli in Pinus: This statement is correct. Alveoli are involved in the formation of endosperm in Pinus. The endosperm is a tissue that nourishes the developing embryo in seeds.

41. Solenocytes are the excretory organs of —-----

1. Mollusks

2. Annelids

3. Platyhelminthes

4. Echinoderms

Ans: C

Solenocytes are the excretory organs of Platyhelminthes (flatworms).

- Solenocytes are specialized flame cells found in the excretory system of certain flatworms, particularly in the class Turbellaria. Flame cells are named for their flickering, flame-like appearance, which is due to the beating of cilia that help in fluid movement and excretion.

- In the context of the other options:

  - Mollusks typically have nephridia as their excretory organs.

  - Annelids have nephridia as well, in addition to metanephridia.

  - Echinoderms primarily use a water vascular system for various functions, including waste elimination.

So, solenocytes are specifically associated with the excretory system of flatworms (Platyhelminthes).

42. The enzyme used to join the segments of DNA is :

1. Restriction endonuclease

2. Ligase

3. Lipase

4. Restriction exonuclease

Ans: B

The enzyme used to join the segments of DNA is Ligase.

- Restriction endonuclease: Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that cut DNA at specific recognition sites, but they are not involved in joining DNA segments.

- Ligase: DNA ligase is the enzyme responsible for joining or ligating two DNA fragments together. It catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides of DNA, sealing the nicks or gaps in the sugar-phosphate backbone.

- Lipase: Lipase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of lipids (fats).

- Restriction exonuclease: Exonucleases are enzymes that cleave the polynucleotide sequence either from the 5’ end or the 3’ end, one at a time.

43. Which enzyme do the digestion of mRNA during RT-PCR?

1. Bal 31

2. RNAase H

3. Endonuclease

4. Exonuclease

Ans: B

The enzyme involved in the digestion of mRNA during reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) is RNAase H.

- Bal 31: Bal 31 is a nuclease that digests both single-stranded and double-stranded DNA but is not specific for RNA.

- RNAase H: RNAase H is an enzyme that specifically digests the RNA strand of an RNA-DNA hybrid. In RT-PCR, reverse transcriptase synthesizes a complementary DNA (cDNA) strand from an RNA template. RNAase H is then used to remove the RNA template, leaving behind the cDNA for further amplification.

- Endonuclease: Endonucleases cut DNA or RNA at specific internal sites, but they are not specifically involved in the digestion of mRNA during RT-PCR.

- Exonuclease: Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA or RNA molecules. While they play various roles in molecular biology, they are not typically used to digest mRNA during RT-PCR.

44. Ecdysis is the shedding of :

1. Stratum corneum

2. Stratum malpighii

3. Dermis

4. Epidermis

CANCELLED

Ecdysis is the shedding of the outer cuticle or exoskeleton in arthropods and some other invertebrates. This process is commonly known as moulting. Ecdysis allows the organism to grow, as the shedding of the old exoskeleton provides room for the development of a new, larger one. During ecdysis, the animal typically goes through a series of stages, including the formation of a new exoskeleton, the softening of the old exoskeleton, and the eventual shedding of the old exoskeleton to reveal the new one underneath.

45. Neoteny is found in :

1. Sphenodon

2. Salamander

3. Planaria

4. Axolotl

Ans: D

Neoteny is found in the Axolotl.

- Axolotl: The axolotl (Ambystoma mexicanum) is a type of salamander that is known for its neotenic features. Axolotls are aquatic and retain their aquatic juvenile characteristics throughout their life, including gills and the ability to reproduce without undergoing a full metamorphosis into a terrestrial form.

46. Match the following and choose the CORRECT answer.

a	Chlorosis	i	B
b	Grey speck of oats	ii	Mb
c	Mottle leaf disease	iii	Mg
d	Whip tail of cauliflower	iv	Mn
		v	Zn

	a	b	c	d
A	i	ii	iii	v
B	ii	iii	i	iv
C	iii	iv	v	ii
D	iv	v	ii	i

Ans: C

- Chlorosis: Chlorosis is often associated with a deficiency of magnesium (Mg) or iron (Fe).

- Grey speck of oats: Grey speck of oats is associated with a manganese (Mn) deficiency.

- Mottle leaf disease: Mottle leaf disease can be associated with a zinc (Zn) deficiency.

- Whip tail of cauliflower: Whip tail of cauliflower is associated with a molybdenum (Mb) deficiency.

47. Which one of the following is not a uricotelic organism ?

1. Pigeon

2. Frog

3. Lizard

4. Cockroach

Ans: B

The uricotelic organisms excrete uric acid as the main nitrogenous waste. Among the options provided, Frog is not a uricotelic organism.

- Pigeon: Birds, including pigeons, are uricotelic. They excrete nitrogenous waste primarily in the form of uric acid.

- Frog: Frogs are ammonotelic, meaning they excrete nitrogenous waste mainly in the form of ammonia.

- Lizard: Most reptiles, including lizards, are uricotelic. They excrete uric acid as the primary nitrogenous waste.

- Cockroach: Insects, including cockroaches, are uricotelic. They excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid.

So, among the options, frogs are ammonotelic, not uricotelic.

48. In angiosperms, the number of male cells found in the pollen tube is:

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

Ans: B

In angiosperms, the number of male cells found in the pollen tube is 2.

During double fertilisation in angiosperms, a pollen tube grows down the style and enters the ovule through the micropyle. Inside the pollen tube are two male gametes (sperms). These two male gametes are released into the ovule when the pollen tube reaches the ovule's embryo sac. One male gamete fuses with the egg cell (syngamy) to form the zygote, which develops into the embryo. The other male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei to form a triploid cell, which develops into the endosperm, providing nourishment to the developing embryo.

49. Crypts of Lieberkuhn is associated with :

1. Intestine

2. Liver

3. Pancreas

4. Gall bladder

Ans: A

Crypts of Lieberkühn are associated with the intestine.

Crypts of Lieberkuhn are tubular glands formed from the mucosa of the small intestine in between the bases of the villi. The cells of these glands secrete intestinal juice.

50. Match the following and choose the CORRECT answer.

a	Catkin	i	Achyranthes
b	Spadix	ii	Colocasia
c	Spike	iii	Coriandrum
d	Umbel	iv	Ficus
		v	Morus

	a	b	c	d
A	i	iii	iv	v
B	i	v	iii	ii
C	iv	iii	ii	i
D	v	ii	i	iii

Ans: D

The following points highlight the five major types of Inflorescence. The types are: 1. Solitary Flowers 2. Racemose Inflorescence 3. Cymose Inflorescence 4. Mixed Inflorescence 5. Special Inflorescence.

Type 1. Solitary Flowers: 

Flowers occur singly or are separated from other flowers of the same plant by vegetative regions. Solitary flowers are formed by direct transformation of shoot tips into flowers. 

They are of two types:

(i) Solitary Terminal:

Single flowers occur at the tips of the main stem and its branches, e.g., Poppy, 

(ii) Solitary Axillary:

Single flowers occur in the axils of ordinary green or foliage leaves, e.g., Petunia, Garden Nasturtium, and Shoe Flower. 

Type  2. Racemose Inflorescence: 

Racemose inflorescence is an indeterminate inflorescence which shows indefinite growth and bears a number of flowers due to the presence of active growing point. The arrangement of flowers is either acropetal (older towards base and younger towards apex) or centripetal (older towards periphery and younger towards centre). Racemose inflores­cence is of two types, simple and compound. 

Simple Racemose Inflorescence (Fig 5.68):

Simple racemose inflorescence is that indefinite inflorescence in which the peduncle is un-branched. 

It is of the following types: 

1. Typical Raceme:

An un-branched elongated peduncle bears stalked or pedicellate flowers in an acropetal fashion, e.g., Larkspur (Delphinium, Fig. 5.69 A), Lupin (Lupinus), Radish (Raphanus), Linaria. 

2. Corymb: 

An un-branched peduncle bears pedicellate flowers in an acropetal fashion (like a typical raceme) but the pedicels of the lower flowers are longer. In this way, all the flowers come to lie at the same level, e.g., Candytuft (Iberis amara, Fig. 5.69 B). 

3. Corymbose Raceme (Fig. 5.69. C): 

The young flowers appear to be arranged like a corymb but in mature state the longer pedicels of the lower flowers do not bring them to the level of upper ones, e.g., Mustard. 

4. Umbel (Fig. 5.70): 

All the pedicellate flowers arise from a single point in a centripetal fashion because the peduncle is reduced. An involucres or a whorl of bracts is often present at the base of flowers, e.g., Androsace, Centella asiatica (= Hydrocotyle asiatica, vern. Brahmi). Umbel is also a unit of inflorescence in family Apiaceae (=Umbelliferae). 

5. Spike (Fig. 5.71):

An elongated peduncle bears sessile flowers in an acropetal fashion, e.g., Chaff Flower (Achyranthes), Bottle Brush (Callistemon), Adhatoda vasica Amaranth. 

6. Spikelet (Fig. 5.68): 

Spikelets are small and few flowered spikes which are surrounded at the base by two scales or glumes. They occur in family Gramineae (e.g., Wheat Oat, Grass, etc.). 

7. Catkin (Amentum, Fig. 5.72): 

The inflorescence is a compact uni­sexual, often hanging, spike which matures and falls down as a single unit, e.g., Mulberry (Morns, vern. Shahtoot), Poplar (Populus), Willow (Salix), Red Hot Cattail (Acalypha hispidd), Betula, Quercus. 

8. Spadix (Fig. 5.73):

It is a spe­cial type of spike which possesses a fleshy peduncle and a large green or coloured bract called spathe. The pe­duncle bears an upper coloured and sterile appendix. The lower part of the peduncle possesses sessile uni­sexual flowers, upper male and lower female. 

The two types of flowers are separated by downwardly directed sterile hair or neuter flower, e.g., Colocasia, Arum. In a spadix the appendix of the peduncle and the spathe are coloured to attract insects for pollination. The spathe is tubular in the basal region to protect the flowers. 

9. Capitulum or Racemose Head (Fig. 5.74):

The peduncle is somewhat flattened to form a receptacle that bears small sessile flowers called florets. The latter are of two types, tubular and ligulate. The florets are arranged in a centripetal fashion, e.g., younger towards the cenre and older towards the periphery. 

The inflorescence is surrounded by one or more whorls of bracts called involucre. Capitulum inflorescence is found in family compositae, e.g., Tagetes, Zinnia, Sunflower (Helianthus annuus), Cosmos, Chrysanthemum, Sonchus. 

It may be tubular homogamous (e.g., Ageratum), ligulate homogamous (e.g., Sonchus) or heterogamous (e.g., Sunflower). In Sunflower, the central disc florets are bisexual and tubular while the peripheral ray florets are sterile or female and ligulate. 

Compound Racemose: 

It is an indefinite or indeterminate inflorescence in which the peduncle is branched in a racemose fashion with each branch bearing flowers in acropetal or centripetal fashion. 

1. Panicle (Raceme of Racemes or Compound Raceme), e.g., Gold Mohur (Delonix), Cassia fistula, Asphodelus, Yucca, Neem (Azadirachta indica). 

2. Compound Corymb (Corymb of Corymbs), e.g., Pyrus, Cauliflower, Candytuft. In Cauliflower (Brassica oleracea vern. hotrytis, vern. Gobhi), the flowers remain undeveloped. 

3. Compound Umbel (Umbel of Umbels). Several small or daughter umbels called umbellules arise from a common point in an umbellate fashion. A whorl of bracts, called involucre, is present at the base of the parent umbel. 

Similar whorls of bracts found at the bases of umbellule’s are called involucels. Compound umbel is characteristic of family umbelliferae e.g., Carrot (Daucos carota), Fennel (Foenlculum vulgare, vern. Saunf), Cori­ander (Coriandrum sativum, vern. Dhania). 

4. Spike of Spikes, e.g., Amaranthus. 

5. Compound Spadix (Spadix of Spadices), e.g., Date, Coconut. 

6. Compound Capitulum (Capitulum of Capitulum) e.g., Echinops. 

Type  3. Cymose Inflorescence: 

Cymose inflorescence is the name of determinate or definite inflorescence in which the tip of the main axis terminates in a flower and further growth continues by one or more lateral branches which also behave like the main axis (Fig. 5.75). The arrangement of flowers is either basipetal or centrifugal. 

It is of the following types: 

a. Uniparous or Monochasial Cyme (Fig. 5.76). 

The terminal bud of main axis ends in flower. A single lateral branch pushes it to one side but also itself ends in a flower. The process is repeated. The peduncle is formed by the fusion of bases of axillary branches and the main axis. It is, therefore, sympodial. 

Uniparous cyme inflorescence is of two types:

(i) Helicoid (Bostryx):

All the flowers are borne on the same side forming a sort of helix, e.g., Drosera, Begonia, 

(ii) Scorpioid (Cincinnus):

Flowers  are alternately borne on both the sides, e.g., Freesia, Tecoma, Heliotropium, Ranunculus bulbosus. A modification of scorpioid cyme is rhipidium. Here all the flowers are borne in one plane, e.g., Solanum nigrum. 

b. Biparous or Dichasial Cyme (Fig. 5.77): 

A terminal flower is subtended by two lateral bram.hes which also end in flowers. The process is repeated. Inflorescence axis is multipodial. e.g., Pink (Dianthus), Nyctanthes (vern. Har Singar), Spergula, Silene, Jasmine (Jasminum), Clerodendron (Clerodendrum), Bougainvillea, Teak. 

  

c. Multiparous or Polychasial Cyme (Fig. 5.78):

More than two lateral branches continue the growth of the inflorescence when the parent axis ends in a flower. Polychasial cyme generally occurs in the primary divisions. The later divisions often become dichasial followed by monochasial ones. As in biparous cyme, the inflorescence axis is multipodial, e.g., Hamelia patens, Calotropis (vern. Ak, Madar), Asclepias. 

d. Cymose Head (Glomerule):

Sessile or subsessile flowers are borne centrifugally around a receptacle, e.g., Anthocephalus cadamba (vern. Kadam), Albizia (= Albizzia), Acacia (Fig. 5.79). 

Type  4. Mixed Inflorescence: 

In this case two or more types of inflorescence get mixed up to form a mixed inflores­cence, e.g., panicle of spikelets (e.g., Oat, Rice), spike of spikelet’s (e.g., Wheat), corymb of capitula (e.g., Ageratum conyzoides), umbel of capitula, raceme of capitula, mixed spadix (spadices with cymose inflorescence arranged acropetally on a fleshy axis having coloured spathes, e.g., banana), thyrsus (thyrse, cymose clusters borne acrotepally on an axis, e.g., Grape Vine, male Cannabis). 

Type  5. Special Inflorescence: 

a. Hypanthodium (Fig. 5.80):

Hypanthodium has a flask-shaped fleshy receptacle which possesses a narrow canal and a terminal pore at one end. The pore is surrounded by a few scales while the canal is lined by downwardly pointed hairs. Internally the receptacle bears male flowers towards the pore and female flow­ers towards the base. 

Sterile, neuter or gall flowers occur in between the two groups. The inflorescence is formed by the condensation of three types of flower- bearing axes (cymose groups). Hypanthodium is found in the genus Ficus of the family Moraceae, e.g., Peepal (Ficus religiosa), Banyan (Ficus bengalensis), and Fig (Ficus carica). 

b. Verticillaster (Fig. 5.81):

Two clusters, each having 3-9 flowers, develop on a node in the axils of opposite leaves. Each cluster consists of a dichasial cyme with monochasial branches. The axis of the cyme is shortened so that all the flowers arise from a single point. 

The two opposite clusters often give the appearance of whorl or verticil due to overcrowd­ing. The verticils are further arranged in a racemose fashion. Verticillaster inflorescence occurs in family Lamiaceae or Labiatae where stems are generally quadrangular, e.g., Ocimum sanctum (Sacred Basil, vern. Tulsi), Ocimum basilicum (Sweet Basil, vern. Niazbo), Salvia, Coleus. 

c. Cyathium (Fig. 5.82):

It occurs in Poinsettia (= Euphorbia pulcherrima) and Eu­phorbia species. The inflorescence looks like a flower. It has a small conical receptacle surrounded by an involucre of generally five green or coloured bracts having nectariferous glands. 

Internally, the inflorescence contains pedicellate achlamydeous and unisexual flow­ers of both the types, male and female. The female flower is single and centrally placed. Male flowers are numerous and are arranged centrifugally. 

Each male flower has a pedicel and a single stamen. The joint between the two represents the thalamus. It is usually naked but in Anthostemma a whorl of small tepals or perianth occurs in this region. The female flower has similarly a pedicel and a tricarpellary pistil with lobed stigmas. 

51. Which of the following method is appropriate for covering the syllabus quickly ?

1. Demonstration method

2. Inductive method

3. Lecture method

4. Project method

Ans: C

The method that is often considered appropriate for covering the syllabus quickly is the Lecture method.

- Lecture Method: In this method, information is presented verbally by the instructor to the students. It is a one-way communication method where the teacher imparts information, and students listen and take notes. Lectures can cover a significant amount of content in a relatively short time.

While the lecture method can be efficient for quickly delivering information, it's important to note that effective learning also involves other methods such as demonstrations, discussions, hands-on activities, and assessments. The choice of teaching method should align with the learning objectives and the nature of the content being covered.

52. The methods and procedures that lead to the generation and validation of scientific knowledge and creativity of the child?

1. Content Validity

2. Cognitive Validity

3. Ethical Validity

4. Process Validity

Ans: D

The methods and procedures that lead to the generation and validation of scientific knowledge and creativity in a child are often associated with Process Validity.

Good science education is true to the child, true to life and true to science. This simple observation leads to the following basic criteria of validity of a science curriculum:

1. Cognitive validity requires that the content, process, language and pedagogical practices of the curriculum are age appropriate, and within the cognitive reach of the child. 

2. Content validity requires that the curriculum must convey significant and correct scientific information. Simplification of content, which is necessary for adapting the curriculum to the cognitive level of the learner, must not be so trivialised as to convey something basically flawed and/or meaningless.

3. Process validity requires that the curriculum should engage the learner in acquiring the methods and processes that lead to the generation and validation of scientific knowledge and nurture the natural curiosity and creativity of the child in science. Process validity is an important criterion since it helps the student in 'learning to learn' science.

4. Historical validity requires that the science curriculum be informed by a historical perspective, enabling the learner to appreciate how the concepts of science evolve over time. It also helps the learner to view science as a social enterprise and to understand how social factors influence the development of science.

5. Environmental validity requires that science beplaced in the wider context of the learner's environment, local and global, enabling him/her to appreciate the issues at the interface of science, technology and society, and equipping him/her with the requisite knowledge and skills to enter the world of work.

6. Ethical validity requires that the curriculum promote the values of honesty, objectivity, cooperation, and freedom from fear and prejudice, and inculcate in the learner a concern for life and preservation of the environment.

53. Logical and systematic breakup of the content and the selection of appropriate objectives and strategies in various instructional situations to access the level of actual teaching at the end is :

1. Curriculum construction

2. Content analysis

3. Pedagogical analysis

4. Anticipatory set

Ans: C

Pedagogic analysis refers to the systematic examination and study of teaching methods and strategies employed in educational settings. The goal of pedagogic analysis is to assess the effectiveness of instructional approaches and to make informed decisions about teaching practices. It involves breaking down the teaching and learning processes into components for critical evaluation. Here are key aspects of pedagogic analysis:

1. Teaching Methods and Strategies: Pedagogic analysis involves an in-depth examination of the methods and strategies used by educators to impart knowledge and facilitate learning. This includes looking at instructional techniques, approaches to content delivery, and the use of various resources and materials.

2. Learning Objectives and Outcomes: Analysis of how well teaching methods align with learning objectives is crucial. This involves assessing whether the chosen strategies effectively contribute to achieving the desired learning outcomes.

3. Student Engagement: The effectiveness of teaching methods is often measured by the level of student engagement. Pedagogic analysis considers how well instructional strategies capture students' interest, maintain their attention, and encourage active participation in the learning process.

4. Assessment and Evaluation: Evaluation methods and tools used to assess students' understanding and progress are examined in pedagogic analysis. This includes the fairness, validity, and reliability of assessment practices.

5. Adaptability: Effective teaching involves adapting to the diverse needs of learners. Pedagogic analysis considers how well teaching methods can be adjusted to accommodate different learning styles, abilities, and backgrounds.

6. Use of Technology: In the modern educational landscape, the integration of technology is a significant aspect of pedagogic analysis. This includes assessing the use of digital tools, online resources, and multimedia in teaching.

7. Feedback and Reflection: Pedagogic analysis encourages educators to reflect on their teaching practices and seek feedback from students, colleagues, or other professionals. Continuous reflection and improvement are essential components.

8. Innovation: Exploring and incorporating innovative teaching methods is also part of pedagogic analysis. This may involve adopting new approaches, technologies, or pedagogical frameworks to enhance the learning experience.

Overall, pedagogic analysis is a dynamic process that supports continuous improvement in teaching practices. It helps educators make informed decisions, refine their instructional methods, and create effective and engaging learning experiences for students.

54. Purpose of Science fair is to :

1. Bring environment friendly life style

2. Develop communication skill

3. Recognize and encourage scientific talents

4. Provide leisure time activities

Ans: C

The primary purpose of a Science Fair is to recognize and encourage scientific talents.

1. Bring environment-friendly lifestyle: While science fairs may include projects related to environmental issues, the primary purpose is not specifically focused on promoting an environmentally friendly lifestyle.

2. Develop communication skills: Although participating in a science fair can help students develop communication skills, it is not the primary purpose. The primary focus is on scientific inquiry, experimentation, and presentation of findings.

3. Recognize and encourage scientific talents: The central objective of a science fair is to provide a platform for students to showcase their scientific talents, creativity, and interest in various scientific disciplines. It aims to recognize and encourage students who demonstrate aptitude and enthusiasm for scientific exploration.

4. Provide leisure time activities: While a science fair may be an engaging and enjoyable activity for students, its primary purpose is educational and centered around promoting scientific inquiry and discovery rather than being purely a leisure activity.

In summary, the main goal of a Science Fair is to recognize and encourage students' interest and skills in science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM) fields. It provides an opportunity for students to engage in scientific inquiry, conduct experiments, and present their findings to a wider audience.

55. Name of the virtual class initiative developed by Kerala Government :

1. First bell

2. KITE

3. Samagra

4. VICTERS

Ans: A

The virtual class initiative developed by the Kerala Government is called First Bell.

56. Educational strategy developed by Helen Parkhurst :

1. Biographical method

2. Dalton plan

3. Experimental method

4. Heuristic method

Ans: B

The educational strategy developed by Helen Parkhurst is known as the Dalton Plan.

57. Which process skill uses a test under controlled conditions ?

1. Classifying

2. Experimenting

3. Inferring

4. Measuring

Ans: B

Experimenting: Experimenting involves conducting experiments to explore, observe, and gather data under controlled conditions.

58. It is meant for evolving a nationalized system of Education in schools, capable of responding to India's diversity while ensuring common core values along with academic components.

1. NCF

2. NCTE

3. SCF

4. UGC

Ans: A

The initiative meant for evolving a nationalized system of education in schools, capable of responding to India's diversity while ensuring common core values along with academic components is referred to as the National Curriculum Framework (NCF).

59. Which among the following is an integrated Process Skill?

1. Interpreting data

2. Inferring

3. Measuring

4. Predicting

Ans: A

Among the options provided, Interpreting data is considered an integrated process skill.

- Interpreting data: This involves making sense of data, drawing conclusions, and extracting meaningful information from the data presented. It often requires a combination of skills, including observation, analysis, and critical thinking.

- Inferring: Inferring involves drawing conclusions or making predictions based on evidence or observations. It is a cognitive process that integrates information to arrive at a logical deduction.

- Measuring: Measuring involves determining the size, quantity, or extent of something using standardized units. While it is a valuable skill, it is more focused on obtaining precise and accurate measurements.

- Predicting: Predicting involves anticipating future outcomes or events based on current knowledge or trends. It requires a synthesis of information and an understanding of cause-and-effect relationships.

So, while all of these skills are important in the context of scientific inquiry, interpreting data is specifically identified as an integrated process skill because it involves multiple facets of data analysis and understanding.

60. Which among the following denotes, the role of education in developing an individual into a complete man ?

1. Learning to know

2. Learning to be

3. Learning to do

4. Learning to live together

Ans: B

The role of education in developing an individual into a complete person is denoted by Learning to be.

- Learning to know: This aspect focuses on acquiring knowledge and developing intellectual skills.

- Learning to be: This aspect emphasizes the holistic development of the individual, nurturing their personality, talents, and abilities. It aims to help individuals become more self-aware and capable of making independent choices.

- Learning to do: This involves acquiring practical skills and competencies that are applicable in real-life situations.

- Learning to live together: This emphasizes the importance of developing social skills, understanding others, and fostering a sense of community and cooperation.

Among these, "Learning to be" addresses the comprehensive development of the individual, encompassing their personal and social aspects. It highlights the role of education in shaping individuals into well-rounded, self-aware, and fulfilled human beings.

61. Which principle of curriculum construction advocates that the curriculum should preserve and transmit the culture and traditions of human race?

1. Conservative principle

2. Creative principle

3. Forward looking principle

4. Utility principle

Ans: A

The principle of curriculum construction that advocates that the curriculum should preserve and transmit the culture and traditions of the human race is the Conservative principle.

62. Constructivism view learning as :

1. Acquisition of knowledge and information

2. Conditioning of processes

3. Passive repetitive process

4. Process of meaning making by active engagement

Ans: D

Constructivism views learning as the process of meaning-making by active engagement.

- Acquisition of knowledge and information: This perspective is more aligned with traditional views of learning, where knowledge is seen as something to be acquired and transferred to learners.

- Conditioning of processes: This refers to behaviorist views that emphasize the conditioning of responses through reinforcement and stimuli, which is not the main focus of constructivism.

- Passive repetitive process: Constructivism rejects the idea of passive learning and emphasizes active engagement in the learning process. It contrasts with rote memorization or repetitive processes.

- Process of meaning-making by active engagement: Constructivism posits that learners actively construct their understanding of the world by engaging with their experiences, making connections, and creating meaning from their interactions with the environment.

Therefore, the constructivist perspective sees learning as an active, dynamic process where learners build their own understanding through exploration, reflection, and the construction of meaning.

63. Taxonomy of Science Education was formulated by :

1. Anderson and Krathwohl

2. Benjamin S. Bloom

3. Biggs and Collis

4. Mc. Cormack and Yager

Ans: D

The Taxonomy of Science Education was formulated by Mc. Cormack and Yager.

64. Who was the Chairman of National Steering Committee formed for the development of NCF ?

1. Daulat Singh Kothari

2. Dr. S Radhakrishnan

3. Dr. A. Lakshmanasami Mudaliar

4. Prof. Yash Pal

Ans: D

The Chairman of National Steering Committee on NCF 2005?

Prof. Yash Pal

NCF 2023 - The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) released the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE). It was drafted by the Union Government-appointed national steering committee headed by K Kasturirangan.

65. Term used to express the totality of learning experiences that the pupil receives through manifold activities of the school is :

1. Curriculum

2. Content

3. Lesson plan

4. Syllabus

Ans: A

The term used to express the totality of learning experiences that the pupil receives through manifold activities of the school is Curriculum.

66. A school based evaluation of students that covers all aspects of student personality :

1. Achievement test

2. Formative evaluation

3. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation

4. Summative evaluation

Ans: C

The school-based evaluation of students that covers all aspects of a student's personality is Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE).

67. A curriculum design approach in which key concepts are presented repeatedly throughout the curriculum, but with deepening layers of complexity where linkage too is taken care off:

1. Concentric

2. Logical

3. Spiral

4. Topical

Ans: C

The curriculum design approach in which key concepts are presented repeatedly throughout the curriculum, but with deepening layers of complexity and where linkage is taken care of is known as the Spiral approach.

68. Which is NOT an approach to organize curriculum ?

1. Concentric Approach 

2. Historical Approach

3. Topical Approach

4. Unit Approach

Ans: B

69. Creativity Domain focuses on :

1. Retrieving relevant knowledge from long term memory

2. Favourable attitude towards science and scientific attitude

3. Processes involved in the production of a novel thing, object or idea

4. Processes that scientists use in their works

Ans: C

The Creativity Domain focuses on:Processes involved in the production of a novel thing, object, or idea.

- Retrieving relevant knowledge from long-term memory: This is more related to the Cognitive Domain, which involves the acquisition and retrieval of knowledge.

- Favourable attitude towards science and scientific attitude: This is more aligned with the Affective Domain, which concerns attitudes, values, and emotional aspects.

- Processes that scientists use in their works: This is related to the Cognitive Domain and the specific skills and processes used in scientific inquiry.

- Processes involved in the production of a novel thing, object, or idea: Creativity involves the ability to generate novel and original ideas, solutions, or products. This aspect falls under the Creativity Domain, which is part of Bloom's Taxonomy.

Therefore, the Creativity Domain focuses on the processes related to generating new and innovative things, objects, or ideas.

70. Who developed Critical Pedagogy as an educational approach ?

1. Anne Sullivan

2. Kohlberg

3. Maria Montessori

4. Paulo Friere

Ans: D

Critical Pedagogy as an educational approach was developed by Paulo Freire.

71. Register maintained in a science laboratory which contains suggestions for new resources is:

1. Consumable stock register

2. Order register

3. Permanent stock register

4. Requirement register

Ans: D

The register maintained in a science laboratory that contains suggestions for new resources is typically referred to as a Requirement Register. This register is used to record and track the needs or requirements for additional resources, equipment, or supplies in the laboratory. It helps in planning and procuring the necessary items to enhance the functionality and effectiveness of the laboratory.

72. Plan of action meant for the distribution of entire academic activities is :

1. Lesson plan

2. Monthly plan

3. Year plan

4. Unit plan

Ans: C

The plan of action meant for the distribution of entire academic activities is the Year Plan. The year plan provides an overview of the academic year, outlining the schedule, major topics, and activities to be covered throughout the year. It helps in organizing and managing the curriculum over an extended period, allowing for a structured and coherent approach to teaching and learning.

73. A Statutory body which aims to achieve planned and coordinated development of teacher education system throughout the country is :

1. NCERT

2. NCTE

3. NAAC

4. UGC

Ans: B

The statutory body that aims to achieve planned and coordinated development of teacher education systems throughout the country is NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education).

74. In Mc Cormack and Yager's Taxonomy, exploring and discovering comes under :

1. Application Domain

2. Attitudinal Domain

3. Process Domain.

4. Creativity Domain

Ans: C

In Mc Cormack and Yager's Taxonomy, exploring and discovering comes under the Process Domain.

75. A three dimensional chart indicating the distribution of questions objective wise, content wise, and form wise :

1. Blue print

2. Content analysis

3. Pedagogic analysis

4. Scoring key

Ans: A

A three-dimensional chart indicating the distribution of questions objective-wise, content-wise, and form-wise is commonly referred to as a Blue Print. The blueprint provides a structured plan that outlines the allocation of questions based on various criteria, ensuring a balanced and comprehensive assessment of the subject matter.

76. Who is the proponent of Spiral Curriculum ?

1. Bruner

2. Piaget

3. Skinner

4. Vygotsky

Ans: A

The proponent of the Spiral Curriculum is Jerome Bruner.

77. Logical conclusion based on observation is known as :

1. Analysis

2. Experiment

3. Inference

4. Synopsis

Ans: C

The logical conclusion based on observation is known as Inference.

78. Any test that measures the attainments and accomplishments of an individual after a period of training or learning is:

1. Aptitude test

2. Achievement test

3. Diagnostic test

4. Prognostic test

Ans: B

Any test that measures the attainments and accomplishments of an individual after a period of training or learning is called an Achievement test.

79. Type of reasoning strategy which involves drawing a general conclusion from a set of specific observations is :

1. Deductive method

2. Inductive method

3. Lecture method

4. Lecture cum demonstration method

Ans: B

The type of reasoning strategy which involves drawing a general conclusion from a set of specific observations is the Inductive method.

80. Reference material which acts as an aid for selecting appropriate methods and approaches of teaching is

1. Pupils workbook

2. Reference book

3. Supplementary readers

4. Teachers handbook

Ans: D

The reference material that acts as an aid for selecting appropriate methods and approaches of teaching is the Teacher's handbook.